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The Land, Bull

  • 19-12-2006 3:59pm
    #1
    0lordy
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 366 ✭✭


    Hopefully someone can help me out with the following question:

    Is there a defined period of time after which land ownership is transferred to an occupier by default?

    Hypothetical example: if Person A has inherited land through a will, but this will was never administered, and Person B has occupied this property for >X years, does person B have a claim over this land, depending on what 'X' is?


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