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why was Rocha cup-tied?

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  • 01-05-2007 11:25pm
    #1
    Wendell Gee
    Registered Users Posts: 284 ✭✭


    Well done Liverpool. Fully merited on the night, and we'll get a better final now. One beef, though- why was Mascherano eligible to play when he played for West ham in the UEFA cup this season? this is of relevance on this board because we saw Tainio at right back against Seville while Rocha sat in the stand. Why- because he was cup-tied, that's why. There's a bad smell off all this, and I'm sure our Cork members can smell it clearly, because Colin Healy and is it Gareth Farrelly are being sidelined due to a narrow interpretationof the 2 clubs one season rule. If this was the GAA I would detect the hand of frank Murphy in all this. Any opinions? Who knows, if we had a back four of Chimbonda, King, dawson, and Rocha against seville, we might have put up a better fight.


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    #2
    therecklessone
    Registered Users Posts: 17,213 ✭✭✭✭therecklessone


    Rocha was cup-tied because Benfica dropped into the Uefa Cup after the group stages of the CL. Even though he never played in the UC with Benfica, the rules state that he can't play for another club who are involved in the same Euro competition.

    If Benfica had finished 4th in their CL group he'd have been eligable to play for us.


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    #3
    Dublin Spur
    Registered Users Posts: 3,317 ✭✭✭Dublin Spur


    Never agreed with the cup tied rule.
    So what id a player has played for 2 different clubs in the same competiton.
    It happens all the time in the league. Anti-Football rule.


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