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Giving notice?

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  • 28-06-2009 11:21pm
    #1
    [Deleted User]
    Posts: 0 ✭


    I've been living in a house for about 5/6 months now, and I dont really like the area that much.
    I've been looking into moving closer to work, and am just wondering.
    How much notice would I have to give the other housemates?
    I never signed a lease with the landlord, (the other girl signed it with him) and my name isnt on the bills.
    How much notice would I have to give if I was to leave.


Comments

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    #2
    Agent J
    Registered Users Posts: 1,909 ✭✭✭Agent J


    Techinically nothing.

    However one month would be good manners and not screwing over the other people.


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    #3
    tba
    Registered Users Posts: 5,111 ✭✭✭tba


    Give them a month, it would be the mannerly thing to do.


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    #4
    MysticalSoul
    Registered Users Posts: 1,266 ✭✭✭MysticalSoul


    I think that technically it is 35 days when no Lease was signed, as you have been there six months. Without a Lease the PRTB guidelines kick in.


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    #5
    tba
    Registered Users Posts: 5,111 ✭✭✭tba


    Yep, if it less than 6 months its 28 days


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    #6
    Agent J
    Registered Users Posts: 1,909 ✭✭✭Agent J


    tba wrote: »
    Yep, if it less than 6 months its 28 days

    Problem is that if nothing has been signed then on the landlord side it has Zero enforcability.


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    #7
    The_Conductor
    Moderators, Society & Culture Moderators Posts: 32,285 Mod ✭✭✭✭The_Conductor


    Agent J wrote: »
    Problem is that if nothing has been signed then on the landlord side it has Zero enforcability.

    Not necessarily.
    In the absence of a signed lease- an Article 4 Tenancy is legally in place- and the terms governing such tenancies may be applied to both tenants and landlords.


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    #8
    Agent J
    Registered Users Posts: 1,909 ✭✭✭Agent J


    smccarrick wrote: »
    Not necessarily.
    In the absence of a signed lease- an Article 4 Tenancy is legally in place- and the terms governing such tenancies may be applied to both tenants and landlords.

    Yes but i think its safe to assume that a PRTB registration hasnt been completed which means the landlord has no recourse aganist the tenant.


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    #9
    D3PO
    Registered Users Posts: 7,879 ✭✭✭D3PO


    Agent J wrote: »
    Yes but i think its safe to assume that a PRTB registration hasnt been completed which means the landlord has no recourse aganist the tenant.

    Firstly why assume that. I would think that this person is subletting from the leaseholders from the opening post. No mention of the landlord.

    secondly your 110% absolutly wrong that the landlord has no recourse if they do not have a tennancy registered anyway. Getting off the subject topic here but regardless of this the tennant is still bound by any legal obligations.

    The only difference is the landlord is libel to recive a fine for not having the tennancy registerd that is all that can come of no registration.


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