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Invitation to Treat vs Offer?

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  • 04-01-2010 9:00pm
    #1
    Closed Accounts Posts: 149 ✭✭


    Can someone explain the difference between an invitation to treat, and an offer?

    I get that an invitation to treat is merely giving the opportunity to the customer to offer to buy the product, without having to accept their offer.

    Is an ad on TV an offer? why is it that a shop can have the wrong price on a product in store, and dismiss it as an invitation to treat, but be afraid of misleading advertising for advertisements?


Comments

  • Closed Accounts Posts: 16,713 ✭✭✭✭jor el


    why is it that a shop can have the wrong price on a product in store, and dismiss it as an invitation to treat,

    They can't really dismiss it. If a price error is brought to their attention, they're supposed to correct it. If not, it's the same as any other false advertising. Any price or advertisement is an invitation to treat, if it's wrong, and not corrected, it's false advertising. If they deliberately put in the wrong price, or false information about price reductions, etc, then that's also false advertising.


  • Registered Users Posts: 33,518 ✭✭✭✭dudara


    If they knowingly leave a wrong price on display, or deliberately mislead, then that's considered false advertising.

    However, if there is a genuine reason for the wrong price, then they can refuse the offer under 'invitation to treat'. 'Invitation to treat' also covers the scenario whereby a retailer can refuse to sell you an item, even if priced correctly, in stock etc.


  • Registered Users Posts: 86 ✭✭PacManFan


    Invitation to Treat: an invitation to a customer to make an offer which can then be either accepted or rejected. A price on the shelf is an invitation to treat.

    Offer: a customer offering to giving a shop 86c for a Dairy Milk by bringing it to a checkout. If the offer is accepted by the cashier, the offer becomes a contract.

    Hope this helps :).


  • Registered Users Posts: 5,517 ✭✭✭axer


    Is an ad on TV an offer?
    No because the intent to form a legally binding contract with everyone is not there. Otherwise if you advertised something on TV and everyone wanted one then people (way more than you have stock for) then you would be in right trouble thus advertisements are seen as merely advertising that you are willing to take offers as it does not make "business sense" to do otherwise.

    In order to have a legal sales contract there are a number of conditions that must be fulfilled:
    Offer
    Acceptance
    Consideration -> Money or payment
    Intent to Contract -> Actually intended on forming a sales contract
    Capacity to Contract -> Is capable of forming a legal sales contract (think age]
    Legality of Form -> Some contracts e.g. Land, must be in written form.

    You see offer alone is not enough anyway to have an instant legally binding contract unless that offer is a uni-lateral offer (pretty much every advert you see is an invitation to treat).
    <In a unilateral contract an offer is made "to the world" that whoever fulfills the requirements of the advertisement has accepted the offer (this is usually rewards and things like that). e.g. the famous case Carlill v Carbolic Smoke Ball Company whereby the Carbolic Smoke Ball Company advertised that if someone still got the flu after using their product correctly they will give 100 pounds to the person and to show their intent they are lodging 1000 pounds in the bank. Someone did get the flu after using the product and they sued and secured the 100 pounds.>
    why is it that a shop can have the wrong price on a product in store, and dismiss it as an invitation to treat, but be afraid of misleading advertising for advertisements?
    This is the difference between contract law and civil law (regular laws created by the government). Contract law is not legislation, it is based on precedence so displaying a price incorrectly is not illegal under contract law i.e. because that is not how contract law works but it is illegal under civil law here.

    So you see a business may have broken a civil law by displaying misleading/false advertising/prices (and could face the penalties laid out by that legislation) but yet they have not entered into a legally binding contract that they must honour.


  • Registered Users Posts: 10,262 ✭✭✭✭Joey the lips


    Anybody is free to rebuff the following as i am not a solicitor i will not pretend to be. To understand the difference in an offer and an invitation to treat you must first understand an invitation to treat,
    An invitation to treat
    An invitation to treat is an invitation to another person to make an offer. The offer only then becomes a contract when it is accepted. Not before the offer is made. An invitation to treat cannot be accepted. To advertise or display goods in a shop window is to invite customers to make an offer. An invitation to treat. The price displayed on the goods is the offer price the shop would like you to make in order to accept your offer. Techanically speaking if you get to the till and the shop keeper says that that price was wrong I would like you to offer me a higher price this is perfectly legal.

    A famous case Minister for industry and commerce v's pim bros(1966) is a famous case quoted to show an invitation to treat. The then minister tried to prosecute the shop because it did not display credit terms. The shop successfully argued that it was not an offer.

    An offer

    For something to be valid as an offer it must

    Have clear terms it cannot be vague. In gunthing v lynn(1831) the offer promised to pay a further sum if the horse was lucky. It was decided by the courts that no agreement was made because the offer was to vague to be determined.

    The Offer must be communicated to the other party. An offer can be communicated to a group of people or just one person. It can then be accepted by the one person or by the group. Carlill v Carbolic Smoke ball company (1893)made this case famous.

    The offer must be made by written or spoken words or infered by the conduct of parties. In otherwords if it aint written down its worthless. However if I stand on top of the empire state and make an offer and enough people hear it that are neutral it will be deemed an offer.

    The offer must be intended as such before a contract can arise. If an offer is not made with a view to a legal relationship then its not an offer. or another way if an offer is not court enforcable its not an offer. An example of the difference is if you offered to pay your neighbour 100 euro to fix your fence or he done it for free


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