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Corruption of sacred texts

  • 07-04-2011 4:50pm
    #1
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,163 ✭✭✭


    In the thread Quran Desecration, the issue has been raised about the extent to which Islam recognises the authenticity of previous scriptures. To Muslims, the Jewish scripture is the Taurah (Torah), the book revealed to Moses, and the Christian scripture is the Injeel (Evangelion = Gospel), the book revealed to Jesus. For Christians, there is the Bible, consisting of the Old Testament (the Hebrew Bible) and the New Testament (including not just the four Gospels but also the Acts of the Apostles, the letters of Paul and others, and the book of Revelation).

    Muslim apologists and those seeking converts often quote from the Bible, particularly verses that they claim foreshadow the coming of another and greater prophet after Jesus (this prophet is identified as Muhammad). On the other hand, where there are inconsistencies between the Qur'an and the Bible, Muslims argue that the Bible has become corrupted, and there are even some verses in the Qur'an that support this position.

    The issue that I'd like to propose for discussion is this:

    What evidence supports the Muslim argument for corruption of previous scriptures, and how far does the argument make sense?


Comments

  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 10,992 ✭✭✭✭partyatmygaff


    Muhammad was born in 571 approximately. This is noted as the coming of Allah's last prophet.

    Prior to this, according to Islam, Jesus had been the most recent prophet of Allah and hence people who followed Jesus were at the time doing the right thing according to Islam.

    All well and good so far, now let's move on

    The Codex Sinaiticus (One of the world's oldest complete manuscripts of the Bible) was written around 330-340 AD. As this was well before the time of Muhammad's birth according to Islam it was still at the time the valid and uncorrupted word of God.

    If the Bible has been corrupted as Islam claims, how is it that for the most part the Codex Sinaiticus and Modern day Bible are the same? What has been corrupted? If the Bible of today matches the Bible of the days long before Islam what is the basis for saying the Bible is corrupted?


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 22,479 ✭✭✭✭philologos


    If the Bible is corrupted, what is the point in using the Bible in dawah? That's the main question I have.

    Apparently I'm told that the parts of the Bible that agree with the Qur'an are the "uncorrupted" parts, and I'm told that I should trust in the Qur'an without question.

    I want to know:
    1) Why should I trust in the Qur'an as being a more reliable source than the New Testament in respect to the life of Jesus if it comes 600 odd years later?
    2) How can we know that the Qur'an is not itself corrupt.
    3) Why is the Qur'an any more true than the Bible?


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,866 ✭✭✭irishconvert


    Jakkass wrote: »
    If the Bible is corrupted, what is the point in using the Bible in dawah? That's the main question I have.

    Apparently I'm told that the parts of the Bible that agree with the Qur'an are the "uncorrupted" parts, and I'm told that I should trust in the Qur'an without question.

    I want to know:
    1) Why should I trust in the Qur'an as being a more reliable source than the New Testament in respect to the life of Jesus if it comes 600 odd years later?
    2) How can we know that the Qur'an is not itself corrupt.
    3) Why is the Qur'an any more true than the Bible?

    You talk about the Bible as if there is one definitive version. As far as I know there are lots of different versions, please correct me if I am wrong. What version of the Bible do you refer to?


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,866 ✭✭✭irishconvert


    Muhammad was born in 571 approximately. This is noted as the coming of Allah's last prophet.

    Prior to this, according to Islam, Jesus had been the most recent prophet of Allah and hence people who followed Jesus were at the time doing the right thing according to Islam.

    All well and good so far, now let's move on

    The Codex Sinaiticus (One of the world's oldest complete manuscripts of the Bible) was written around 330-340 AD. As this was well before the time of Muhammad's birth according to Islam it was still at the time the valid and uncorrupted word of God.

    If the Bible has been corrupted as Islam claims, how is it that for the most part the Codex Sinaiticus and Modern day Bible are the same? What has been corrupted? If the Bible of today matches the Bible of the days long before Islam what is the basis for saying the Bible is corrupted?

    From what I have read and heard from Islamic scholars, they say that the Bible was written hundreds of years after Jesus died. The people who wrote the Bible were not the deciples of Jesus. Also there are many different versions of the Bible all changed by men, e.g. King James, King James revised edition, Catholic Bible. That is where Muslims get the idea that the Bible is unreliable. Whereas the Qur'an was revealed and recorded during the time of Muhammed. Also there is only one version of the Qur'an, every single copy from the time of Muhammed to this day is exactly the same. The same cannot be said for the Bible.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 22,479 ✭✭✭✭philologos


    You talk about the Bible as if there is one definitive version. As far as I know there are lots of different versions, please correct me if I am wrong. What version of the Bible do you refer to?

    Many different translations. Just as there are many translations of the Qur'an. I can get Abdullah Yusif Ali's translation or I can get M.A.S Abdel Haleem's.

    However, the manuscripts by and large are the same. In comparison at worst the Bible can be regarded 99.6% authentic. We have 40,000 manuscripts of the Bible, and this is what the comparison is based on. If one were to make huge changes to the Bible they would be caught red-handed. All one would have to do would be to compare the manuscript that is dodgy to the 39,999 others.

    Not even the writings of Plato or Aristotle have this degree of authenticity.

    The evidence that we have is showing that there is very little sign of change if any in the Biblical manuscripts.

    As for the Bible being written hundreds of years after Jesus died this is simply false. The Bible as we know it was compiled in the fourth century, but the Tanakh was compiled by the Jews much before then, and the New Testament texts were all written within decades of Jesus' life. The first texts (1st Corinthians, and Galatians) were written in the 50's roughly 15 years after Jesus's death. The last were written in the 90's AD.

    However, the questions remain unanswered. Making inaccurate pot-shots at the Bible doesn't improve the case for the Qur'an.


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 10,992 ✭✭✭✭partyatmygaff


    From what I have read and heard from Islamic scholars, they say that the Bible was written hundreds of years after Jesus died.
    What is their evidence for this? To be quite frank I do not care for the opinions of a few random Muslim scholars. I care for the careful analysis of historians who worked on analysing the Codex Sinaiticus. They determined the terminus post quem of the codex to be 325 AD and the terminus ad quem to be 360 AD. This is the work of historians and is respected as such. This is one of the few surviving complete manuscripts and even so there is evidence to suggest it itself had been copied from earlier written sources.
    The people who wrote the Bible were not the deciples of Jesus.
    How so?
    Also there are many different versions of the Bible all changed by men, e.g. King James, King James revised edition, Catholic Bible.
    I believe the correct word is translated, not changed. The Codex Sinaiticus and similar early manuscripts do not differ in any great deal to modern Bibles.
    Also there is only one version of the Qur'an, every single copy from the time of Muhammed to this day is exactly the same. The same cannot be said for the Bible.
    http://www.theatlantic.com/magazine/archive/1999/01/what-is-the-koran/4024/

    Have a read of that.


  • Banned (with Prison Access) Posts: 1,320 ✭✭✭dead one


    how is it that for the most part the Codex Sinaiticus and Modern day Bible are the same? What has been corrupted? If the Bible of today matches the Bible of the days long before Islam what is the basis for saying the Bible is corrupted?
    Let me first clear you basic concepts.
    1. We muslim believe all Prophet preached Islam.
    2. All prophet were muslims
    3. Islam is not only religion but complete way to lead a happy life
    4. Islam started with arrival of Adam (Pbuh). He was first Prophet. Islam completed on Prophet Muhammad (pbuh)
    5. All previous revelations and Prophets were limited in their authority to special region or nation but Quran is universal and for whole mankind.
    Keeping above points in mind
    The Codex Sinaiticus (One of the world's oldest complete manuscripts of the Bible) was written around 330-340 AD. As this was well before the time of Muhammad's birth according to Islam it was still at the time the valid and uncorrupted word of God.
    ALL these Codex’s from HUNDREDS of years after Jesus’ disappearance (Codex Vaticanus and Codex Sinaiticus from the 4th century, and Codex Alexandrinus from the 5th century), THEY ALL have errors and inconsistencies, and their ALL in Greek, Jesus (PBUH) did NOT speak Greek, Jesus (PBUH) spoke the language of Aramaic.
    If the Bible has been corrupted as Islam claims,
    If you read bible, that's what exactly what bible claim
    GOD Almighty Said:
    "`How can you say, "We [the Jews] are wise, for we have the law of the LORD," when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely?' (From the NIV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"
    http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Jeremiah+8%3A8-12&version=NIV
    See Also Deuteronomy 31:25-29
    where Moses peace be upon him predicted the corruption/tampering of the Law (Bible) after his death.
    29 For I know that after my death you are sure to become utterly corrupt and to turn from the way I have commanded you. In days to come, disaster will fall on you because you will do evil in the sight of the LORD and arouse his anger by what your hands have made.”
    http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Deuteronomy%2031:25-29&version=NIV
    how is it that for the most part the Codex Sinaiticus and Modern day Bible are the same?
    No one can answer this question, Because no one know what happens to original bible.
    Just for example
    When the Church Mythologists established their system, they collected all the writings they could find, and managed them as they pleased. It is a matter altogether of uncertainty to us whether such of the writings as now appear under the name of the Old and New Testament are in the same state in which those collectors say they found them, or whether they added, altered, abridged, or dressed them up. Be this as it may, they decided by vote which of the books out of the collection they had made should be the WORD OF GOD, and which should not. They rejected several; they voted others to be doubtful, such as the books called the Apocrypha; and those books which had a majority of votes, were voted to be the word of God. Had they voted otherwise, all the people, since calling themselves Christians, had believed otherwise — for the belief of the one comes from the vote of the other. Who the people were that did all this, we know nothing of; they called themselves by the general name of the Church, and this is all we know of the matter.
    What has been corrupted? If the Bible of today matches the Bible of the days long before Islam what is the basis for saying the Bible is corrupted?
    No one can answer this question only God can answer, because it needs a gap of 1800 centuries to answer this question. That's why God send his last revelation to show what is real message of Jesus Pbuh? I hope you will understand sooner or later.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 22,479 ✭✭✭✭philologos


    dead one wrote: »
    Let me first clear you basic concepts.
    1. We muslim believe all Prophet preached Islam.
    2. All prophet were muslims
    3. Islam is not only religion but complete way to lead a happy life
    4. Islam started with arrival of Adam (Pbuh). He was first Prophet. Islam completed on Prophet Muhammad (pbuh)
    5. All previous revelations and Prophets were limited in their authority to special region or nation but Quran is universal and for whole mankind.
    Keeping above points in mind

    That's great but why do you believe in these things? Why should we assume them.
    dead one wrote: »
    If you read bible, that's what exactly what bible claim
    GOD Almighty Said:See Also Deuteronomy 31:25-29
    where Moses peace be upon him predicted the corruption/tampering of the Law (Bible) after his death.
    The Book of Moses predicted that the Law (Bible) will get corrupted. The Book of Jeremiah which came approximately 826 years after did indeed confirm this corruption.
    No. No. No.

    That refers very clearly to the corruption of the people of Israel rather than the book referring to the Torah law. This is a very clear example of why you need to read the Bible for yourself rather than trusting men to do it for you. Read the whole chapter before quoting it.

    Let's read this again:
    For I know that after my (Moses) death you (people of Israel) are sure to become utterly corrupt and to turn from the way I have commanded you. In days to come, disaster will fall on you because you will do evil in the sight of the LORD and arouse his anger by what your hands have made.”

    It talks about the people of Israel, not the Torah manuscripts. Indeed if you actually read from 1 Samuel through to 2 Chronicles you will see that God eventually punished the people of Israel and Judah for turning to foreign gods. Indeed, read the prophets from Isaiah to Malachi and you'll see exactly what happened.

    This is simply a very bad reading of the Bible.

    dead one wrote: »
    No one can answer this question, Because no one know what happens to original bible.

    True but we can show very clearly what existed in the 40,000 copies. The fact is that they are at the very least 99.6% the same.


    dead one wrote: »
    Just for example

    What makes you think that Thomas Paine had a more favourable view of the Qur'an? He was a deist.

    It's obvious that when the Bible is a book spanning over thousands of years that it will have to be compiled. This does not mean that the actual texts that are there are garbled. The evidence stands very clearly against this view, the evidence also stands very clearly as to Jesus being crucified.
    dead one wrote: »
    No one can answer this question only God can answer, because it needs a gap of 1800 centuries to answer this question. That's why God send his last revelation to show what is real message of Jesus Pbuh? I hope you will understand sooner or later.

    So how can we know the Qur'an is not corrupted? If the Qur'an is the basis for how we can tell something is not corrupted we must have good reason to believe that it itself is not corrupted?


  • Registered Users Posts: 165 ✭✭whydoc


    Jakkass wrote: »
    That's great but why do you believe in these things? Why should we assume them.


    No. No. No.

    That refers very clearly to the corruption of the people of Israel rather than the book referring to the Torah law. This is a very clear example of why you need to read the Bible for yourself rather than trusting men to do it for you. Read the whole chapter before quoting it.

    Let's read this again:


    It talks about the people of Israel, not the Torah manuscripts. Indeed if you actually read from 1 Samuel through to 2 Chronicles you will see that God eventually punished the people of Israel and Judah for turning to foreign gods. Indeed, read the prophets from Isaiah to Malachi and you'll see exactly what happened.

    This is simply a very bad reading of the Bible.
    [/LEFT]

    I heard that in the corrupted torah we read something like: in year... Moses died....!
    So, what ?!


  • Registered Users Posts: 165 ✭✭whydoc


    What is their evidence for this? To be quite frank I do not care for the opinions of a few random Muslim scholars. I care for the careful analysis of historians who worked on analysing the Codex Sinaiticus. They determined the terminus post quem of the codex to be 325 AD and the terminus ad quem to be 360 AD. This is the work of historians and is respected as such. This is one of the few surviving complete manuscripts and even so there is evidence to suggest it itself had been copied from earlier written sources.

    I believe the correct word is translated, not changed. The Codex Sinaiticus and similar early manuscripts do not differ in any great deal to modern Bibles.

    .
    1- Their evidence is the qur'aan - God last testamny.

    2- This is just for you . you may refer to shaikh Ahmed Deedat debates if the bible is the word of God and Bart Ehrman books and he has a video on youtube that most US biblical scholars and professors are certain of that.

    Have a read of that
    Codex Vaticanus Graece 1209, B/03
    A textcritical complaint


    "Fool and knave, can't you leave the old reading alone and not alter it!" On page 1512, the beginning of Hebrews, an curious note appears, which is mentioned by Bruce M. Metzger in his NTTC book. A later (minuscule aera) scribe complains about a change of the text of Heb 1:3:

    1512-2.jpg


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  • Closed Accounts Posts: 22,479 ✭✭✭✭philologos


    whydoc wrote: »
    I heard that in the corrupted torah we read something like: in year... Moses died....!
    So, what ?!

    We still have no evidence that the Torah is corrupted. You need to back up this claim. Your standard for saying that things are corrupt is the Qur'an, but why should we believe the Qur'an to be true?
    whydoc wrote: »
    1- Their evidence is the qur'aan - God last testamny.

    Why is the Qur'an evidence? It comes 600 years after the event described.
    whydoc wrote: »
    2- This is just for you . you may refer to shaikh Ahmed Deedat debates if the bible is the word of God and Bart Ehrman books and he has a video on youtube that most US biblical scholars and professors are certain of that.

    Bruce Metzger has also said from his research that the Bible can be shown to be at least 99.6% authentic. Where there are minor alterations in some manuscripts, we look to the consensus in the other 39,999.

    Namely, the sheer number of manuscripts we have for the Bible in the world make the Bible more likely to be authentic, as we can check to see what is the case in the vast majority.

    I note that no Muslim on this thread so far has answered my questions on the Qur'an. It seems that you are going on the offensive so that you won't have to go on the defensive, and even when you do go on the offensive it simply fails in comparison to the facts.


  • Registered Users Posts: 165 ✭✭whydoc


    Jakkass wrote: »
    I want to know:
    1) Why should I trust in the Qur'an as being a more reliable source than the New Testament in respect to the life of Jesus if it comes 600 odd years later?
    2) How can we know that the Qur'an is not itself corrupt.
    3) Why is the Qur'an any more true than the Bible?

    I hope this helps with what was posted before.
    Two Hundred plus Way the Quran Corrects the Bible
    http://www.ebnmaryam.com/web/modules.php?name=myBooks2&op=open&cat=7&book=407


  • Registered Users Posts: 165 ✭✭whydoc


    Jakkass wrote: »
    We still have no evidence that the Torah is corrupted. You need to back up this claim. Your standard for saying that things are corrupt is the Qur'an, but why should we believe the Qur'an to be true?
    Have you any thing made you see the reverse. Read it then state your reason. For the torah we beleive it's the the book revealed to Moses, so anything added and it's ok !


    Why is the Qur'an evidence? It comes 600 years after the event described.
    Because we beleive that Muhammad- peace and blessings be upon him- that was known before within his people as -trustworthy- is the messanger of God !
    Note that he was illiterate and didn't study any previous scripture. Note that a christian boy used to serve the prophet, he said testamony of faith later he returned to his previous religion then claimed he teached him qur'aan . He died then the earth rejected his body.they couldn't bury him.( This happened during prophet's life).


    Bruce Metzger has also said from his research that the Bible can be shown to be at least 99.6% authentic. Where there are minor alterations in some manuscripts, we look to the consensus in the other 39,999.

    Namely, the sheer number of manuscripts we have for the Bible in the world make the Bible more likely to be authentic, as we can check to see what is the case in the vast majority.
    Hivizman:
    To Muslims, the Jewish scripture is the Taurah (Torah), the book revealed to Moses, and the Christian scripture is the Injeel (Evangelion = Gospel), the book revealed to Jesus. For Christians, there is the Bible, consisting of the Old Testament (the Hebrew Bible) and the New Testament (including not just the four Gospels but also the Acts of the Apostles, the letters of Paul and others, and the book of Revelation).

    Can any one say that the letters of Paul are Injeel.No it's not . there are 4 gospels w beleive in 1

    A STATEMENT REGARDING THE MUSLIM PERSPECTIVE ON THE TORAH AND THE GOSPEL :
    http://www.harunyahya.com/books/faith/pleasant_words_from_gospel/pleasant_words_01.php
    I note that no Muslim on this thread so far has answered my questions on the Qur'an. It seems that you are going on the offensive so that you won't have to go on the defensive, and even when you do go on the offensive it simply fails in comparison to the facts.

    Are we attacking each other here. :eek:
    Note that i am not the best to answer any of your Q.English is not my main language.!
    you may ask an imam or a muslim scholar face to face if you have a nearby mosque !:confused:


  • Registered Users Posts: 28 DorianGrayism


    From what I have read and heard from Islamic scholars, they say that the Bible was written hundreds of years after Jesus died. The people who wrote the Bible were not the deciples of Jesus. Also there are many different versions of the Bible all changed by men, e.g. King James, King James revised edition, Catholic Bible. That is where Muslims get the idea that the Bible is unreliable. Whereas the Qur'an was revealed and recorded during the time of Muhammed. Also there is only one version of the Qur'an, every single copy from the time of Muhammed to this day is exactly the same. The same cannot be said for the Bible.

    Well, there was clearly more than version of the Qu'ran, otherwise they wouldn't have organised the great burning of the various Qu'ranic manuscripts and sent a standard text out again.

    I am not sure about the New Testaments, but the Old testament has undergone very little change through the years. Even the oldest versions, show remarkable similarity to the newer ones.


  • Registered Users Posts: 165 ✭✭whydoc


    OT & NT Books
    & Authors
    Judges
    Possibly Samuel
    Ruth
    Perhaps Samuel
    First Samuel
    Unknown
    Second Samuel
    Unknown
    First Kings
    Unknown
    Second Kings
    Unknown
    First Chronicles
    Unknown
    Esther
    Unknown
    Job
    Unknown
    Ecclesiastes
    Doubtful
    Jonah
    Unknown
    Malachi
    Nothing known
    Apocrypha
    More than half of the world’s Christians are Roman Catholics. Their version of the Bible was published in 1582 from Jerome’s Latin Vulgate, and reproduced at Douay in 1609. The Old Testament of the RCV (Roman Catholic Version) contains seven more books than the King James Version recognized by the Protestant world. The extra books are referred to as the apocrypha (i.e., of doubtful authority) and were removed from the Bible in 1611 by Protestant Bible scholars.

    Books
    Authors
    Gospel of Matthew
    Unknown[31]
    Gospel of Mark
    Unknown[32]
    Gospel of Luke
    Unknown[33]
    Gospel of John
    Unknown[34]
    Acts
    The author of Luke[35]
    I, II, III John
    The author of John[36]

    Source


    I don't think it's worthy to be a debate issue .
    And i hope that everyone here don't think of it as being offensive or defensive. win or lose...etc


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 22,479 ✭✭✭✭philologos


    Again guys, could you please answer my questions on the Qur'an:
    1) Why should I trust in the Qur'an as being a more reliable source than the New Testament in respect to the life of Jesus if it comes 600 odd years later?
    2) How can we know that the Qur'an is not itself corrupt.
    3) Why is the Qur'an any more true than the Bible?
    We still have no evidence that the Torah is corrupted. You need to back up this claim. Your standard for saying that things are corrupt is the Qur'an, but why should we believe the Qur'an to be true?


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 22,479 ✭✭✭✭philologos


    whydoc wrote: »
    Have you any thing made you see the reverse. Read it then state your reason. For the torah we beleive it's the the book revealed to Moses, so anything added and it's ok !

    You are the one claiming it is corrupt, therefore it is acceptable to ask why you believe this. It is also acceptable to ask why the Qur'an is more authentic than the Bible, or indeed acceptable to ask why the Qur'an is somehow a better guide of truth than the Bible.

    If you are making these claims, you need to back them up surely?

    I've given you evidence that the texts in the Bible are at least 99.6% as it was when it was first written
    whydoc wrote: »
    Because we beleive that Muhammad- peace and blessings be upon him- that was known before within his people as -trustworthy- is the messanger of God !
    Note that he was illiterate and didn't study any previous scripture. Note that a christian boy used to serve the prophet, he said testamony of faith later he returned to his previous religion then claimed he teached him qur'aan . He died then the earth rejected his body.they couldn't bury him.( This happened during prophet's life).

    This isn't evidence to someone like me who doesn't believe in the Qur'an or in Islam, but believes and trusts in God as revealed in the Bible.

    Why should I believe this stuff? This is your problem. Unless you can prove the Qur'an more reliable than the Bible this isn't evidence. By the by, if you quote from websites this is lazy as I can look on answeringislam.com and find as much as I want but it is better if we have an honest discussion.
    whydoc wrote: »
    Can any one say that the letters of Paul are Injeel.No it's not . there are 4 gospels w beleive in 1

    Yes, Paul's letters are a part of the New Testament, and He did have a relationship with Christ albeit after he died. Peter also has letters in the New Testament and he did meet and experience Jesus as did John.

    Where is this "Injeel" you speak of?
    whydoc wrote: »
    Are we attacking each other here. :eek:
    Note that i am not the best to answer any of your Q.English is not my main language.!
    you may ask an imam or a muslim scholar face to face if you have a nearby mosque !:confused:

    I'm asking you to answer my questions on the Qur'an instead of ignoring them and riling against the Bible using false and inaccurate information.

    If you aren't willing to answer on the Qur'an, how can you be any more reliable in respect to the Bible which isn't your holy book?


  • Registered Users Posts: 165 ✭✭whydoc


    @ Jakkass
    I think that the thread is titled Corruption of sacred texts.
    THe Q was
    What evidence supports the Muslim argument for corruption of previous scriptures, and how far does the argument make sense?
    What's called evidence is:

    1- For muslims: Qur'aan
    2- For non-muslims: What have been proved that:

    -Most bible writers are anonymous ( Not as a level of the "weak" hadith.)
    - No one ever claimed that 2 similar manuscripts ever exist
    -Torah was proved to be corrupted by what's added after Moses death.
    - Current bible scholars confirmed they are corrupted. for the corrupted part to be 6% or 90% that doesn't matter.


    Note i here explained my view as a muslim. I am NOT trying to force anyone to tell me that his beleif is false.





    Scribes Who Altered Sripture DR..BART D. EHRMAN PART 1 OF 10


    Still can't beleive they are corrupted ?
    Not my problem at all.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 22,479 ✭✭✭✭philologos


    Yes, I still don't.

    I'm going to ask this again but could you please answer my questions about the Qur'an.

    Much of the criteria that Ehrman is bringing up also fail in respect to the Qur'an. It seems like you are happy to ignore this. The Qur'an is also not a contemporary source, but don't let that stop you.

    My point which Ehrman hasn't referred to is about corruption. It is about external sources which backs up the Gospel. The fact still remains though, there are 40,000 manuscripts which very largely agree with each other. Meaning, the accounts aren't corrupted.

    As far as I remember the Qur'an wasn't written until 100 years after it was revealed to Muhammad, and you are seriously complaining because the first accounts of the Resurrection come 20 years after Jesus?

    Also, Peter does name himself in his writing, as does Luke, as do many other Biblical books.

    As for the Resurrection accounts differing, I'm not surprised. People often interpret the same event differently. If I we both went somewhere for the day, and we were both asked to write down what happened we would notice different things more prominently. This isn't a good argument either.

    Come on now you know and I know that this is inadequate! :)
    Torah was proved to be corrupted by what's added after Moses death.

    Nonsense. The Torah wasn't written by Moses but by a scribe. This is why it accounts for his death.


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  • Registered Users Posts: 165 ✭✭whydoc


    Jakkass wrote: »
    Yes, I still don't.

    I'm going to ask this again but could you please answer my questions about the Qur'an.

    Much of the criteria that Ehrman is bringing up also fail in respect to the Qur'an. It seems like you are happy to ignore this. The Qur'an is also not a contemporary source, but don't let that stop you.

    My point which Ehrman hasn't referred to is about corruption. It is about external sources which backs up the Gospel. The fact still remains though, there are 40,000 manuscripts which very largely agree with each other. Meaning, the accounts aren't corrupted.

    As far as I remember the Qur'an wasn't written until 100 years after it was revealed to Muhammad, and you are seriously complaining because the first accounts of the Resurrection come 20 years after Jesus?

    Also, Peter does name himself in his writing, as does Luke, as do many other Biblical books.

    Come on now you know and I know that this is inadequate! :)
    Sure inadequate at all :)


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 22,479 ✭✭✭✭philologos


    whydoc wrote: »
    Sure inadequate at all :)

    I've explained exactly why. Would you or another Muslim please answer my questions about the Qur'an? Or is this just bash the Bible thread? Hardly reasonable if you ask me :pac:

    Edit: Post 15,000 :)


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,163 ✭✭✭hivizman


    Jakkass wrote: »
    I've explained exactly why. Would you or another Muslim please answer my questions about the Qur'an? Or is this just bash the Bible thread? Hardly reasonable if you ask me :pac:

    Perhaps, as a non-Muslim, I may be permitted to summarise what I think the Muslim position on the authenticity of the Bible is.

    The key starting point is that the Qur'an is believed to be the actual Word of God, revealed through the Angel Jibril to Muhammad bit-by-bit over a period of about 21 years. As God is "al-Haqq", the Truth, this means that the Qur'an is a manifestation of the Truth, and anything stated in the Qur'an is necessarily true. The Qur'an is self-reflexive, in that it makes various statements about itself, for example that it is the last revelation from God, that it conveys basically the same message as previous revelations, in particular the Tawrah and the Injeel, that it is free from contradiction, that it is inimitable, and that God will work to preserve it.

    The Qur'an, in various verses, refers to the "People of the Book" (basically, Jews and Christians) distorting the revelations that they had received. This isn't just the accidental distortion that could arise through mistakes in copying, but deliberate distortion to represent meanings that are not in the original revelations and indeed may be contradictory to the original revelations.

    Although the Qur'an was not written down systematically at the time it was revealed, the large number of people who had memorised the Qur'an, in part or in whole, meant that the recitation was preserved. However, within a generation of Muhammad's death, recitations were beginning to deviate in different parts of the Muslim world, so the then Khalifa, Uthman, in consultation with Muhammad's secretaries and family members, and other Companions of the Prophet, prepared a definitive edition of the Qur'an. Any existing texts were destroyed, and several copies of the "Uthmanic recension" were distributed to major cities in the Muslim world. Since then, the existence of millions of Muslims who have memorised the whole text of the Qur'an has ensured that clerical transcription errors have not been allowed to creep into subsequent manuscripts, so the Qur'an as we know it today is completely unchanged from the "Uthmanic recension".

    To a non-Muslim, this story has two key weaknesses. First, it relies on accepting the truth of the Qur'an. But as soon as we deny that the Qur'an is necessarily true in all particulars, we can no longer rely on verses of the Qur'an to support the argument against other scriptures. We can't even take for granted the existence of earlier revelations in the form suggested by the Qur'an, so in particular we can't assume that there was an "Injeel".

    Secondly, the narrative of the "Uthmanic recension" itself depends on oral testimonies that were not collected in a surviving written form until several years (indeed, centuries) after the events that they narrate. Archaeologists and palaeographers differ over the reliability, and indeed the dating, of the earliest surviving manuscripts of the Qur'an.

    Muslim arguments for the "corruption" of the Tawrah and the Injeel depend on acceptance of the truth of the Qur'an. Given the premise that these revelations were basically the same as the Qur'an, then any differences between the existing scriptures and the Qur'an "must" be the result of corruption. The fact that there is evidence of clerical transcription errors and indeed of interpolations, such as the "Johannine comma" (1 John 5:7-8 - the inclusion of words testifying to the Trinity), provides support for the "corruption" argument. However, Christian scholars discuss these issues of transmission openly, and consider that the various manuscripts, taken as a whole, are sufficient to identify a "textus receptus" with a limited number of variant readings.

    Another argument relates to "contradictions" in the Bible. Again, normatively, the Qur'an is taken to be free from contradictions (the convenient doctrine of "abrogation" is sometimes used to explain away apparent inconsistencies). There are many well-known differences in the Bible, for example between the four Gospels in the passion and resurrection narratives, but to most Christians differences of detail do not matter (indeed they can lend greater authenticity, as it is argued that, if the four Gospels agreed in every detail, this would be evidence of collusion in writing - on the other hand, Christian apologists often point to agreement among the evangelists as evidence for the truth of what is being narrated). One important reason for this is that scripture, at least to most Christians, has a somewhat different status from the Qur'an to Muslims. Whereas the Qur'an is regarded by Muslims as the Word of God, to most Christians, the Bible is inspired by God, working through the Holy Spirit, but is the work of human authors. Hence, to say that the New Testament is not the Injeel is really beside the point: the Gospels are, if anything, more like the various Lives of Muhammad that were compiled from oral transmission in the couple of centuries after Muhammad's death.

    My overall conclusion is, I think, basically the same as Jakkass is arguing: Muslims giving da'wah cannot pick and choose which bits of the Bible are considered authentic and which are considered corrupted, as the criterion for whether a passage is corrupted is basically that it does not agree with the Qur'an. This means that the Bible cannot be an independent source of evidence for the truth of Islam.
    Jakkass wrote: »
    Edit: Post 15,000 :)

    Congratulations! :)


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,621 ✭✭✭Jaafa


    While I agree with hivizman on most of what you said I disagree on the point that most Christians view the bible as inspired by god.

    From my personal experience most Christians I have spoken to seem to have the misconceptions that the bible is in fact the direct word of god.

    I'll grant you however some of these were people who were perhaps not all that religious in the first place.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 22,479 ✭✭✭✭philologos


    Jaafa wrote: »
    From my personal experience most Christians I have spoken to seem to have the misconceptions that the bible is in fact the direct word of god.

    The Bible contains the direct word of God in places. For example the Lord speaking to Moses in the Torah, or if one believes that Jesus is God in human flesh and that He is the word of God as John 1 describes this is another way in which it contains the direct word of God.

    Otherwise, God still speaks through prophets according to the Christian faith. In fact in many places in the prophetic books God speaks directly to them according to Christianity.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,621 ✭✭✭Jaafa


    Jakkass wrote: »
    The Bible contains the direct word of God in places. For example the Lord speaking to Moses in the Torah, or if one believes that Jesus is God in human flesh and that He is the word of God as John 1 describes this is another way in which it contains the direct word of God.

    Otherwise, God still speaks through prophets according to the Christian faith. In fact in many places in the prophetic books God speaks directly to them according to Christianity.

    Yes I understand this. My point is that some people seem to think that the bible was just handed down to us from heaven in its complete form. :P

    I don't understand how they would get this idea.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 22,479 ✭✭✭✭philologos


    Jaafa wrote: »
    Yes I understand this. My point is that some people seem to think that the bible was just handed down to us from heaven in its complete form. :P

    I don't understand how they would get this idea.

    It is in a way because it is inspired by God even if it doesn't always contain direct quotation from him. The Bible also writes about what God has done as well as what God has said if you get what I mean, and indeed how God has inspired people who follow Him.

    I think hivizman is right to say that the literary style of the Bible is very different to the style of the Qur'an.


  • Registered Users Posts: 165 ✭✭whydoc


    hivizman wrote: »
    To a non-Muslim, this story has two key weaknesses. First, it relies on accepting the truth of the Qur'an. But as soon as we deny that the Qur'an is necessarily true in all particulars, we can no longer rely on verses of the Qur'an to support the argument against other scriptures. We can't even take for granted the existence of earlier revelations in the form suggested by the Qur'an, so in particular we can't assume that there was an "Injeel".
    Sure :)
    Secondly, the narrative of the "Uthmanic recension" itself depends on oral testimonies that were not collected in a surviving written form until several years (indeed, centuries) after the events that they narrate. Archaeologists and palaeographers differ over the reliability, and indeed the dating, of the earliest surviving manuscripts of the Qur'an.
    PLease Read this article.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,163 ✭✭✭hivizman


    whydoc wrote: »
    PLease Read this article.

    Thanks for posting the link to this article on the preservation of the Qur'an. It sets out the Muslim case for the preservation of the Qur'an that I summarised in my earlier post in more detail, and supports my comment that the evidence for the narrative is indeed "oral testimonies that were not collected in a surviving written form until several years (indeed centuries) after the events that they narrate." Most of the references to primary sources are to Sahih al-Bukhari, which is dated to around 232AH/846CE, about two centuries after the events being discussed.

    I should say, for the avoidance of doubt, that I believe that the traditional narrative of the Uthmanic recension is rather more plausible than the alternatives, suggested by academics such as John Wansbrough, Patricia Crone and Christoph Luxenburg, that the Qur'an was either a later compilation or was based on earlier Jewish and Christian sources. However, the evidence for the traditional narrative is only conclusive if you already accept the status of the Qur'an as divine revelation and the authenticity of oral tradition.


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  • Registered Users Posts: 165 ✭✭whydoc


    hivizman wrote: »
    Thanks for posting the link to this article on the preservation of the Qur'an. It sets out the Muslim case for the preservation of the Qur'an that I summarised in my earlier post in more detail, and supports my comment that the evidence for the narrative is indeed "oral testimonies that were not collected in a surviving written form until several years (indeed centuries) after the events that they narrate." Most of the references to primary sources are to Sahih al-Bukhari, which is dated to around 232AH/846CE, about two centuries after the events being discussed.


    You were refering to hadith...uhh :). You are mostly right.
    To be a source or authority of Islamic law, a hadith must be from the categories of sahih (authentic) or hasan (good). In order for a hadith to be authentic or good it must meet the following criteria:

    1) The chain of narration must be unbroken. In other words, each source must have received the hadith directly from the one whose authority he is relating it all the way back to the Prophet peace be upon him. If there is any missing authority, the chain would be considered broken and unacceptable.

    2) Every narrator in the chain must be of acceptable righteousness and character; in other words, each narrator must be morally fit. Impious people are not accepted, for their impiety is a sign that they don’t fear Allah and, hence, they can’t be trusted to take extreme care in narrating the statements of the Prophet peace be upon him. If just one narrator in the chain does not meet these criteria the hadith will have to be rejected.
    3) Moral characteristics are not sufficient. Each narrator must be proficient and exact when it comes to narrating hadith. If a person is known to make lots of mistakes when narrating hadith either from his memory or from his writing, his hadith will not be acceptable.
    4) Both the chain and the text of the hadith must be such that they don’t contradict what has been narrated through stronger means.
    5) Upon inspection of the different ways a hadith is narrated, it must be the case that no mistake or defect is spotted in either the chain or the text of the hadith
    If any of these conditions are not met, the hadith will be rejected as weak or very weak depending on the magnitude of the weakness.
    Hadith which are graded weak or very weak are not considered authorities in Islamic law.

    For further details about hadiths ( This articles 1, 2 , 3 ) from muslims perspective.
    So, At least for us, It's an austhenic testamony not an ordinary one.




  • Banned (with Prison Access) Posts: 1,320 ✭✭✭dead one


    Jakkass wrote: »
    If the Bible is corrupted, what is the point in using the Bible in dawah? That's the main question I have.
    The point simple, you believe in Bible and you have faith in bible, If bible tells something,obviously it is easily to convince you rather using other sources. Now all bible isn't corrupted, even there are some clues which match with Quran. As i had showed you that there is lot of resemblance between Quran and bible why because Quran is from Same God and Bible is from same God. Now where is difference. Difference is different man made interpretation of Bible.
    Please follow link
    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Biblical_narratives_and_the_Qur%27an
    Jakkass wrote: »
    I want to know:
    1) Why should I trust in the Qur'an as being a more reliable source than the New Testament in respect to the life of Jesus if it comes 600 odd years later?
    Because its mentioned in the bible that there will be another prophet that will be sent to the people after Essa "Jesus" (Alyh alslam) and mentions that he's the last prophet.Bible:

    In Deuteronomy 18, Moses stated that God told him: “I will raise up for them a prophet like you from among their brothers; I will put my words in his mouth, and he will tell them everything I command him. If anyone does not listen to my words that the prophet speaks in my name, I myself will call him to account.” (Deuteronomy 18:18-19).
    Muhammad was predicted to come in the Gospel of John:
    Just a quick note, the Arabic word "Muhammad" is an expression which means "The honorable one" or "The glorified one" or "The admirable". Prophet Muhammad was the first in the Middle East to be named "Muhammad". Below, you will see how Jesus in today's Gospel of John had called this human Prophet which he predicted his comming "The honorable one".
    Jesus in the Greek Bible used the Greek word "Periklytos" which means the admirable or glorified one. He called that predicted human prophet "Periklytos". This word corresponds exactly to the Arabic word "Muhammad" which also means the "admired one" or "glorified one." In other words, "Periklytos" is "Muhammad" in Greek.
    Let us start...
    In the Bible we can find the following four passages wherein Jesus (peace be upon him) predicts a great event:
    John 14:16 "And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever"
    John 15:26 "But when the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father, [even] the Spirit of truth, which proceedeth from the Father, he shall testify of me"
    John 14:26 "But the Comforter, [which is] the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you."
    John 16:7-14 "Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you. And when he is come, he will reprove the world of sin, and of righteousness, and of judgment: Of sin, because they believe not on me; Of righteousness, because I go to my Father, and ye see me no more; Of judgment, because the prince of this world is judged. I have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now. Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, [that] shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come. He shall glorify me: for he shall receive of mine, and shall shew [it] unto you."
    In these four verses, the word "comforter"is translated from the word "Paraclete" ("Ho Parakletos" in Greek). Parakletos in Greek is interpreted as "an advocate", one who pleads the cause of another, one who councils or advises another from deep concern for the other's welfare (Beacon Bible commentary volume VII, p.168). In these verses we are told that once Jesus (peace be upon him) departs, a Paraclete will come. He will glorify Jesus (peace be upon him), and he will guide mankind into all truth. This "Paraclete" is identified in John 14:26 as the Holy Ghost.
    It must be pointed out that the original Greek manuscripts speak of a "Holy pneuma." The word pneuma {pnyoo'-mah} is the Greek root word for "spirit." There is no separate word for "Ghost" in the Greek manuscripts, of which there are claimed to be over 24,000 today.The translators of the King James Version of the Bible translate this word as "Ghost" to convey their own personal understanding of the text. However, a more accurate translation is "Holy Spirit." More faithful and recent translations of the Bible, such as the New Revised Standard Version (NRSV), do indeed now translate it as "Holy Spirit." This is significant, and will be expounded upon shortly.
    All Bibles in existence today are compiled from "ancient manuscripts," the most ancient of which being those of the fourth century C.E. Any scholar of the Bible will tell us that no two ancient manuscripts are exactly identical. All Bibles in our possession today are the result of extensive cutting and pasting from these various manuscripts with no single one being the definitive reference.
    What the translators of the Bible have done when presented with such discrepancies is to do their best to choose the correct version. In other words, since they can not know which "ancient manuscript" is the correct one, they must do a little detective work on the text in order to decide which "version" of a given verse to accept. John 14:26 is just such an example of such selection techniques.
    John 14:26 is the only verse of the Bible which associates the Parakletos with the Holy Spirit. But if we were to go back to the "ancient manuscripts" themselves, we would find that they are not all in agreement that the "Parakletos" is the Holy Spirit. For instance, in the famous the Codex Syriacus, written around the fifth century C.E., and discovered in 1812 on Mount Sinai by Mrs.Agnes S. Lewis (and Mrs. Bensley), the text of 14:26 reads; "Paraclete, the Spirit"; and not "Paraclete, the Holy Spirit.".
    Jakkass wrote: »
    (2) How can we know that the Qur'an is not itself corrupt.
    To answer this question first tell me do you believe in God's words. Suppose for the sake of argument do you agree with me, Quran is God's word?
    Jakkass wrote: »
    3) Why is the Qur'an any more true than the Bible?
    1. Quran doesn't contains many versions dervived from ancient manuscripts.
    2. The bible has a number of Books many of whose authors are not know as agreed by wikipedia(this citation is not alterable!) It was inspired by men who wrote it so it is subject to human error. Whereas there is only one version of Quran in whole world
    3.The bible was never memorized to preserve its safe passing down to future geneartions.

    4.Quran doesn't contains serious historical,scientific ,mathematical and logical error.
    5.Bible does not exist in the original language which is hebrew or armaic, these are extinct languages and because of its translationf froma dead language into multiple translations doubts arise whenther the meaning can remain intact for 2000 years. Whereas Quran is in its original langauge
    6.the authors of bible report with inumerable errors ,in third person of happenings which contradict each


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 22,479 ✭✭✭✭philologos


    dead one wrote: »
    The point simple, you believe in Bible and you have faith in bible, If bible tells something,obviously it is easily to convince you rather using other sources. Now all bible isn't corrupted, even there are some clues which match with Quran. As i had showed you that there is lot of resemblance between Quran and bible why because Quran is from Same God and Bible is from same God. Now where is difference. Difference is different man made interpretation of Bible.
    Please follow link.

    How is the Qur'an any less corrupt if not more so? Just curious, and also I want to hear your opinion rather than the opinion of others.

    I don't believe the Islamic concept of God is the same as the Christian one. Christians clearly, and the Bible clearly presents a Trinity, Father, Son and Holy Spirit.
    dead one wrote: »
    Because its mentioned in the bible that there will be another prophet that will be sent to the people after Essa "Jesus" (Alyh alslam) and mentions that he's the last prophet.Bible:

    Not at all. All you are showing is an ability to strawman:
    But when he, the Spirit of truth, comes, he will guide you into all the truth. He will not speak on his own; he will speak only what he hears, and he will tell you what is yet to come. He will glorify me because it is from me that he will receive what he will make known to you. All that belongs to the Father is mine. That is why I said the Spirit will receive from me what he will make known to you.”

    John's Gospel throughout uses Trinitarian language.
    dead one wrote: »
    In Deuteronomy 18, Moses stated that God told him: “I will raise up for them a prophet like you from among their brothers; I will put my words in his mouth, and he will tell them everything I command him. If anyone does not listen to my words that the prophet speaks in my name, I myself will call him to account.” (Deuteronomy 18:18-19).

    Is Muhammad a Jew? - This passage is referring to Jesus as far as I see it.

    dead one wrote: »
    To answer this question first tell me do you believe in God's words. Suppose for the sake of argument do you agree with me, Quran is God's word?

    No, I don't agree that the Qur'an is God's word.
    dead one wrote: »
    1. Quran doesn't contains many versions dervived from ancient manuscripts.

    Nonsense, the Qur'an contains a number of translations into English, just as the Bible does.
    dead one wrote: »
    2. The bible has a number of Books many of whose authors are not know as agreed by wikipedia(this citation is not alterable!) It was inspired by men who wrote it so it is subject to human error. Whereas there is only one version of Quran in whole world

    I don't trust Wikipedia as an authority, however I would attribute this for the most part to many prophets having scribes.
    dead one wrote: »
    3.The bible was never memorized to preserve its safe passing down to future geneartions.

    I'm fairly sure this was a practice in the past. In the early church there wasn't any Bible apart from the Hebrew Scriptures.

    Although hivizman has pointed out something very interesting in respect to memorisation and indeed the Caliph Uthman. There can be alterations that seep in in memorisation. Hence why there were five differing Qur'ans in existence, an authoriative version was chosen and the rest burned according to Bukhari's hadith.
    dead one wrote: »
    4.Quran doesn't contains serious historical,scientific ,mathematical and logical error.

    What basis do you have for this?
    dead one wrote: »
    5.Bible does not exist in the original language which is hebrew or armaic, these are extinct languages and because of its translationf froma dead language into multiple translations doubts arise whenther the meaning can remain intact for 2000 years. Whereas Quran is in its original langauge.

    This is false, and is typical of the nonsense one will hear at the typical dawah stand in respect to Christianity. The Old Testament was written in Hebrew and Aramaic and we still have Hebrew and Aramaic manuscripts. The New Testament was written in Greek and we still have Greek manuscripts.
    dead one wrote: »
    6.the authors of bible report with inumerable errors ,in third person of happenings which contradict each

    Let's discuss this. I have a strong feeling that this is going to prove to be inaccurate.


  • Banned (with Prison Access) Posts: 1,320 ✭✭✭dead one


    Jakkass wrote: »
    How is the Qur'an any less corrupt if not more so? Just curious, and also I want to hear your opinion rather than the opinion of others.
    I had given you my opinion in the end of post. The detail which is given in the wiki link isn't other people's opinion. But it's opinion of majority of muslim and i suppose i am musilm.
    Jakkass wrote: »
    I don't believe the Islamic concept of God is the same as the Christian one. Christians clearly, and the Bible clearly presents a Trinity, Father, Son and Holy Spirit.
    What is islamic concept of God i.e oneness of God. If you see bible that's what Jesus preached. Jesus never claimed for divinity It means you are indirectly rejecting Jesus accepting other people who interpreted bible on behlf of jesus. Yet you claim that you love jesus.
    Both the Noble Quran and the Bible claim that GOD Almighty is an Absolute One and only One:
    "Say: He is God, the One and Only; God, the Eternal, Absolute; He begetteth not, nor is He begotten; And there is none like unto Him. (The Noble Quran, 112:1-4)"
    "Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD is one. (From the NIV Bible, Deuteronomy 6:4)"
    "The most important one," answered Jesus, "is this: 'Hear, O Israel, the Lord our God, the Lord is one. (From the NIV Bible, Mark 12:29)"
    Notice also how Jesus said "our God", which included him to be under GOD Almighty's creation and Divine Authority, and not someone or an entity that is equal to GOD Almighty.

    The Bible's New Testament also records Jesus saying: ""Why do you call me good?" Jesus answered. "No one is good–except God alone." (From the NIV Bible, Mark 10:18)"
    If Jesus doesn't consider himself as "good", then how can any sane person put him on the same level as GOD Almighty?
    I have yet to see a good answer to this one by any polytheist trinitarian.
    Also, another important point to notice in Mark 10:18 is the word "alone": ""Why do you call me good?" Jesus answered. "No one is good–except God alone." (From the NIV Bible, Mark 10:18)"
    Jesus in this verse is clearly giving exclusivity to GOD Almighty when he said "alone". If Jesus was truly part of GOD Almighty and/or the trinity lie was true, then Jesus, to say the least, would not have said that.
    Jakkass wrote: »
    But when he, the Spirit of truth, comes, he will guide you into all the truth. He will not speak on his own; he will speak only what he hears, and he will tell you what is yet to come. He will glorify me because it is from me that he will receive what he will make known to you. All that belongs to the Father is mine. That is why I said the Spirit will receive from me what he will make known to you.”
    A "Spirit" in the New Testament is a human Prophet. Therefore, Jesus had predicted the comming of a human Prophet (spirit) after him and not the Holy Spirit. Jesus would not have used the word "he" for the Holy Spirit. He would have used "it" instead in John 14:26 above. Read 1 John 4:1-3 below:"Beloved, believe not every spirit, but try the spirits whether they are of God: because many false prophets are gone out into the world," (1 John 4:1-3)
    (also see 1 John 4:6), or an inspired human, for example read 1 Corinthians 2:10, 2 Thessalonians 2:2, ...etc.
    1) Christian scholars see evidence of tampering, especailly with the word "Spirit":
    In the famous "Anchor Bible" we find the following quote: "The word parakletos is peculiar in the NT to the Johnannine literature. In John ii Jesus is a parakletos (not a title), serving as a heavenly intercessor with the Father ... Christian tradition has identified this figure (Paraclete) as the Holy Spirit, but scholars like Spitta, Delafosse, Windisch, Sasse, Bultmann, and Betz have doubted whether this identification is true to the original picture and have suggested that the Paraclete was once an independent salvific figure, later confused with the Holy Spirit." (The Anchor Bible, Doubleday & Company, Inc, Garden City, N.Y. 1970, Volume 29A, p. 1135)
    We are about to see some of the evidence that goes to prove this position.

    2) Does the Holy Spirit "speak" or "inspire":
    Important Note: The Greek word translated as "hear" in the Biblical verses ("whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak") is the Greek word "akouo" {ak-oo'-o} meaning to perceive sounds. It has, for instance, given us the word "acoustics," the science of sounds. Similarly the verb "to speak" is the Greek verb "laleo" {lal-eh'-o} which has the general meaning "to emit sounds" and the specific meaning "to speak." This verb occurs very frequently in the Greek text of the Gospels. It designates a solemn declaration by Jesus (peace be upon him) during his preachings (For example Matthew 9:18). Obviously these verbs require hearing and speech organs in order to facilitate them. There is a distinct difference between someone "inspiring" something and him "speaking" something. So the Paraclete will "hear" and "speak," not "inspire."
    Muhammad (peace be upon him), as seen above, did indeed fulfill this prophesy. Whatsoever he "HEARD" from Gabriel (The Qur'an), the same did he physically "SPEAK" to his followers. In the Qur'an we read:
    "(God swears) By the star when it falls!: Your comrade (Muhammad) errs not, nor is he deceived; Nor does he speak of (his own) desire. It is naught save a revelation that is revealed (unto him)." (The noble Qur'an, Al-Najm(53):1-4)
    Jakkass wrote: »
    Is Muhammad a Jew? - This passage is referring to Jesus as far as I see it.
    i knew it you will say it jesus
    From these verses we conclude that the prophet in this prophecy must have the following three characteristics:
    1) That he will be like Moses.
    2) That he will come from the brothers of the Israelites, i.e. the Ishmaelites.
    3) That God will put His words in to the mouth of this prophet and that he will declare what God commands him.
    Let us examine these three characteristics in more depth:
    1) A prophet like Moses:
    Now how jesus is like moses

    quote In the FIRST place Jesus is not like Moses, because, according to you - 'JESUS IS A GOD', but Moses is not God. Is this true? Therefore, Jesus is not like Moses! SECONDLY, according to you - 'JESUS DIED FOR THE SINS OF THE WORLD', but Mose s did not have to die for the sins of the world. Is this true?" Therefore Jesus is not like Moses! THIRDLY, according to you - 'JESUS WENT TO HELL FOR THREE DAYS', but Moses did not have to go there. Is this true?" Therefore Jesus is not like Moses!" Let us discuss something very simple, very easy that if your little ones are called in to hear the discussion, would have no difficulty in following it, Father and Mother
    (1) "Moses had a father and a mother. Muhummed also had a father and a mother. But Jesus had only a mother, and no human father. Is this true?"

    Miraculous Birth
    (2) "Moses and Muhummed were born in the normal, natural course, i.e. the physical association of man and woman; but Jesus was created by a special miracle. You will recall that we are told in the Gospel of St.Matthew 1:18".....BEFORE THEY CAME TOGETHER,(Joseph the Carpenter and Mary) SHE WAS FOUND WITH CHILD BY THE HOLY GHOST.' And St.Luke tells us that when the good news of the birth of a holy son was announded to her, Mary reasoned:'.......HOW SHALL THIS BE, SEEING I KNOW NOT A MAN? AND THE ANGEL ANSWERED AND SAID UNTO HER, THE HOLY GHOST SHALL COME UPON THEE, AND THE POWER OF THE HIGHEST SHALL OVERSHADOW THEE:......'(Luke 1:35). The Holy Qur'an confirms the miraculous birth of Jesus, in nobler and sublimer terms. In answer to her logical question:
    " O MY LORD! HOW SHALL I HAVE A SON WHEN NO MAN HATH TOUCHED ME? "
    The angel says in reply:
    "EVEN SO:
    ALLAH CREATETH WHAT HE WILLETH:
    WHEN HE HATH DECREED A PLAN,
    HE BUT SAITH TO IT "BE,"
    AND IT IS " (9) (HOLY QUR'AN, 3:47).
    It is not necessary for God to plant a seed in man or animal. He merely wills it and it comes into being. This is the Muslim conception of the of birth of Jesus.
    "Therefore Jesus is not like Moses, but Muhummed is like Moses. And God says to Moses in the Book of Deuteronomy 18:18 "LIKE UNTO THEE" (Like You, Like Moses) and Muhummed is like Moses."
    Marriage Ties
    (3) "Moses and Muhummed married and begat children, but Jesus remained a bachelor all his life. Is this true?" "Therefore Jesus is not like Moses, but Muhummed is like Moses."
    No, I don't agree that the Qur'an is God's word.
    Do you agree bible is God's word
    Jakkass wrote: »
    Nonsense, the Qur'an contains a number of translations into English, just as the Bible does.
    My Good friend, but the original language is present in the world. Translations don't mean versions. There is only one version of Quran in the world. You don't know where is original copy of Bible?
    Jakkass wrote: »
    I don't trust Wikipedia as an authority, however I would attribute this for the most part to many prophets having scribes.
    So why you don't help wikidia for the missing citation. Is this an excuse on you part showing you know the authors. ?
    Jakkass wrote: »
    Although hivizman has pointed out something very interesting in respect to memorisation and indeed the Caliph Uthman. There can be alterations that seep in in memorisation. Hence why there were five differing Qur'ans in existence, an authoriative version was chosen and the rest burned according to Bukhari's hadith.

    There can never be alteration why reason is as follow because he didn't do on his own behalf. He put the matter before the Companions. All agreed that the copy prepared in Abu Bakr's time was the standard one. After Abu Bakr, it had passed into the hands of Omar, and now it was with his daughter, Hafsa. Usman got this copy. Zahid bin Thabit, the trusted scribe of the revelation, was asked to prepare seven copies from it. He was to be helped by three more men, who had the Qur'an by heart.
    Jakkass wrote: »
    What basis do you have for this?
    Science


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 22,479 ✭✭✭✭philologos


    dead one wrote: »
    I had given you my opinion in the end of post. The detail which is given in the wiki link isn't other people's opinion. But it's opinion of majority of muslim and i suppose i am musilm.

    This isn't an answer. Claiming that the Bible is corrupt is not simultaneously saying that the Qur'an isn't. That's the problem with your argument, it says nothing about Islam all it is is throwing pot-shots at Christianity.
    dead one wrote: »
    What is islamic concept of God i.e oneness of God. If you see bible that's what Jesus preached. Jesus never claimed for divinity It means you are indirectly rejecting Jesus accepting other people who interpreted bible on behlf of jesus. Yet you claim that you love jesus.

    Jesus, like all other Christians believes that God is one, comprised of three parts. Father, Son and Holy Spirit. For some absurd reason Muslims seem to believe that Christians are polytheists.

    I'm not rejecting Jesus at all. I accept His life, death and resurrection. I accept that He died in our place on the cross for our sin. That's what being a Christian means. It is when Islam arrives that the story is changed, not beforehand.
    dead one wrote: »
    A "Spirit" in the New Testament is a human Prophet. Therefore, Jesus had predicted the comming of a human Prophet (spirit) after him and not the Holy Spirit. Jesus would not have used the word "he" for the Holy Spirit. He would have used "it" instead in John 14:26 above. Read 1 John 4:1-3 below:"Beloved, believe not every spirit, but try the spirits whether they are of God: because many false prophets are gone out into the world," (1 John 4:1-3)
    (also see 1 John 4:6), or an inspired human, for example read 1 Corinthians 2:10, 2 Thessalonians 2:2, ...etc.

    Nonsense. It is saying that there are other spirits to the Holy Spirit, indeed there dark powers in the world as well as those of light as far as Christians are concerned. The Spirit is personified in the Scriptures, just as God is personified because the Spirit is a part of the Trinity. Just because he is used doesn't mean that the Spirit is a literal person.

    I wonder if I google some of what you have posted will I arrive at answeringchristianity.com or other such sites.
    dead one wrote: »
    i knew it you will say it jesus
    From these verses we conclude that the prophet in this prophecy must have the following three characteristics:
    dead one wrote: »
    1) That he will be like Moses.
    2) That he will come from the brothers of the Israelites, i.e. the Ishmaelites.
    3) That God will put His words in to the mouth of this prophet and that he will declare what God commands him.

    2 is incorrect:

    Ishmael is not the brother of Israel, that is Esau and the Edomites were utterly destroyed by the Babylonians (see Obadiah), and it doesn't say from amongst Israel's brothers it says from their brothers. I.E the community of Israel.

    dead one wrote: »
    Let us examine these three characteristics in more depth:
    1) A prophet like Moses:
    Now how jesus is like moses

    The answer is obvious, but as a Muslim you cannot accept it because it goes against your beliefs.

    Moses brought the Israelites out of slavery in Egypt (Exodus 12).
    Jesus brought those who put their faith and trust in Him out of the slavery of sin. Jesus died once for all so that they might have new life. There are numerous Scriptures that back this up.
    For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life. For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him. Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe stands condemned already because they have not believed in the name of God’s one and only Son.
    Jesus replied, “Very truly I tell you, everyone who sins is a slave to sin. Now a slave has no permanent place in the family, but a son belongs to it forever. So if the Son sets you free, you will be free indeed.

    If John 8:34-35 is true, how did Jesus set mankind free from sin other than the cross?

    If John 3:16-18 is true, why is it necessary to believe in the name of God's one and only son?
    dead one wrote: »
    My Good friend, but the original language is present in the world. Translations don't mean versions. There is only one version of Quran in the world. You don't know where is original copy of Bible?

    The original copies don't exist simply because of age. The fact that we have 40,000 copies for checking means that it would have been nonetheless extremely difficult to introduce changes.
    dead one wrote: »
    So why you don't help wikidia for the missing citation. Is this an excuse on you part showing you know the authors. ?

    Valid reasoning.
    dead one wrote: »
    There can never be alteration why reason is as follow because he didn't do on his own behalf. He put the matter before the Companions. All agreed that the copy prepared in Abu Bakr's time was the standard one. After Abu Bakr, it had passed into the hands of Omar, and now it was with his daughter, Hafsa. Usman got this copy. Zahid bin Thabit, the trusted scribe of the revelation, was asked to prepare seven copies from it. He was to be helped by three more men, who had the Qur'an by heart.

    How did he agree this? - The Qur'an wasn't written down until 100 years after it was learned orally. The first New Testament letters were written down within 15 years of the Gospel being first proclaimed. Is there more or less chance that error would be introduced in 100 years rather than 15. If I am wrong about the dating please tell me.
    dead one wrote: »
    Science

    This is a poor answer. I suspect that it has something to do with the supposed mathematical "miracles" of the Qur'an rather than anything authoritative.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 7,418 ✭✭✭JimiTime


    I think its important to note, that pointing out percieved 'flaws' etc in the Bible, even if right, still DOES NOTHING to further ANY sort of a case for the Quran.

    On a different note, I've talked to Muslims who have posited that because the Quran is the Word of God through one man i.e. Muhammad, it makes it more reliable. I have to say, I think that this is one of its biggest weaknesses. Having more than one witness Declare the revelation of God, being in agreement and given over time is better than having just one man on his own declaring that he has the word of God. Its the Joseph Smith (Mormonism) thing again.


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,163 ✭✭✭hivizman


    JimiTime wrote: »
    I think its important to note, that pointing out percieved 'flaws' etc in the Bible, even if right, still DOES NOTHING to further ANY sort of a case for the Quran.

    On a different note, I've talked to Muslims who have posited that because the Quran is the Word of God through one man i.e. Muhammad, it makes it more reliable. I have to say, I think that this is one of its biggest weaknesses. Having more than one witness Declare the revelation of God, being in agreement and given over time is better than having just one man on his own declaring that he has the word of God. Its the Joseph Smith (Mormonism) thing again.

    This issue has always worried me - what criteria, if any, distinguish the authority of revelations reported by Muhammad from the authority of revelations reported by Joseph Smith? I saw a YouTube video (if I can track it down again, I'll add a link) recently where the speaker, a well-known Muslim apologist, stated that the Joseph Smith's claim to have received a revelation from God cannot be true because the Qur'an defines Muhammad as the "Seal of the Prophets" and hence the last and final messenger of God. But this is another of the Qur'an's self-reflexive claims - if you deny the authority of the Qur'an, then you cannot rule out subsequent claims to have received revelation simply because the Qur'an says so.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 22,479 ✭✭✭✭philologos


    hivizman - Indeed, Christianity placed such a restriction that if a prophet presented anything contrary to the Gospel that one should not accept this (Galatians 1:8). It seems to be something that is prevalent in a lot of differing traditions.


  • Banned (with Prison Access) Posts: 1,320 ✭✭✭dead one


    Jakkass wrote: »
    This isn't an answer. Claiming that the Bible is corrupt is not simultaneously saying that the Qur'an isn't. That's the problem with your argument, it says nothing about Islam all it is is throwing pot-shots at Christianity.
    Alright can you point out contradiction in quran? Also show me how quran can be corrupt, if it is corrupted who corrupted it?
    Jakkass wrote: »
    Jesus, like all other Christians believes that God is one, comprised of three parts. Father, Son and Holy Spirit. For some absurd reason Muslims seem to believe that Christians are polytheists.
    How you can say that, Have you ever met with Jesus in your dreams where Jesus told you that he believe in son,father and holy ghost or show me verse in bible where jesus said he believe in father,son and holy ghost.
    Suppose i say Adam believed jesus is son of god. That is what i believe, it doesn't mean actually Adam believed jesus as son of god. Same is case of bible, the interpretations which are present in bible don't show actual belief of Bible but those are belief of person
    Jakkass wrote: »
    I'm not rejecting Jesus at all. I accept His life, death and resurrection. I accept that He died in our place on the cross for our sin. That's what being a Christian means. It is when Islam arrives that the story is changed, not beforehand.
    You are accepting interpretation of people and you think that it will close you to Jesus, what an irony.
    Jakkass wrote: »
    Nonsense. It is saying that there are other spirits to the Holy Spirit, indeed there dark powers in the world as well as those of light as far as Christians are concerned. The Spirit is personified in the Scriptures, just as God is personified because the Spirit is a part of the Trinity. Just because he is used doesn't mean that the Spirit is a literal person.
    Are you the holy spirit or speaking on behalf of holy spirit.
    Jakkass wrote: »
    I wonder if I google some of what you have posted will I arrive at answeringchristianity.com or other such sites.

    Is this show you don't have knoweldge to discuss things. It also needs knowedlge to google things. Can this change facts which are written in bible.
    [/SIZE]
    Jakkass wrote: »
    2 is incorrect:
    Ishmael is not the brother of Israel, that is Esau and the Edomites were utterly destroyed by the Babylonians (see Obadiah), and it doesn't say from amongst Israel's brothers it says from their brothers. I.E the community of Israel.
    Abraham had two sons, Ishmael and Isaac (Genesis 21). Ishmael became the grandfather of the Arab nation, and Isaac became the grandfather of the Jewish nation. The prophet spoken of was not to come from among the Jews themselves, but from among their brothers, i.e. the Ishmaelites. Muhammad , a descendant of Ishmael, is indeed this prophet.
    Also, Isaiah 42:1-13 speaks of the servant of God, His “chosen one” and “messenger” who will bring down a law. “He will not falter or be discouraged till he establishes justice on earth. In his law the islands will put their hope.” (Isaiah 42:4). Verse 11, connects that awaited one with the descendants of Kedar. Who is Kedar? According to Genesis 25:13, Kedar was the second son of Ishmael, the ancestor of the Prophet Muhammad .
    Jakkass wrote: »
    The answer is obvious, but as a Muslim you cannot accept it because it goes against your beliefs.
    Beliefs are not blind as the interpertations of people.
    Jakkass wrote: »
    Moses brought the Israelites out of slavery in Egypt (Exodus 12).
    Jesus brought those who put their faith and trust in Him out of the slavery of sin. Jesus died once for all so that they might have new life. There are numerous Scriptures that back this up.
    You are saying as jesus was man so moses was man. Is this similarity. You pick a grain a sand tried to showed it as desert is this honestly
    Jakkass wrote: »
    If John 8:34-35 is true, how did Jesus set mankind free from sin other than the cross?
    Jesus was true messenger of God, If you follow his teaching surely you will get out of salavery of sin but Alas you are following interpretation of Pual.
    Jakkass wrote: »
    Jesus, like all other Christians believes that God is one, comprised of three parts. Father, Son and Holy Spirit. For some absurd reason Muslims seem to believe that Christians are polytheists.
    How you can say that, Have you ever met with Jesus in your dreams where Jesus told you that he believe in son,father and holy ghost or show me verse in bible where jesus said he believe in father,son and holy ghost.
    Suppose i says Adam believed jesus is son of god. That is what i believe, it doesn't mean actually Adam believed jesus as son of god. Same is case of bible, the interpretations which are present in bible don't show actual belief of Bible but those are belief of person
    Jakkass wrote: »
    I'm not rejecting Jesus at all. I accept His life, death and resurrection. I accept that He died in our place on the cross for our sin. That's what being a Christian means. It is when Islam arrives that the story is changed, not beforehand.
    You are accepting interpretation of people and think that it will close you to Jesus,
    Jakkass wrote: »
    Nonsense. It is saying that there are other spirits to the Holy Spirit, indeed there dark powers in the world as well as those of light as far as Christians are concerned. The Spirit is personified in the Scriptures, just as God is personified because the Spirit is a part of the Trinity. Just because he is used doesn't mean that the Spirit is a literal person.
    Are you the holy spirit or speaking on behalf of holy spirit.
    Jakkass wrote: »
    I wonder if I google some of what you have posted will I arrive at answeringchristianity.com or other such sites.
    Is this show you don't have knoweldge to discuss things. It also needs knowedlge to google things. Can this change the fact which are written in bible.
    Jakkass wrote: »
    2 is incorrect:
    Ishmael is not the brother of Israel, that is Esau and the Edomites were utterly destroyed by the Babylonians (see Obadiah), and it doesn't say from amongst Israel's brothers it says from their brothers. I.E the community of Israel.
    Abraham had two sons, Ishmael and Isaac (Genesis 21). Ishmael became the grandfather of the Arab nation, and Isaac became the grandfather of the Jewish nation. The prophet spoken of was not to come from among the Jews themselves, but from among their brothers, i.e. the Ishmaelites. Muhammad , a descendant of Ishmael, is indeed this prophet.
    Also, Isaiah 42:1-13 speaks of the servant of God, His “chosen one” and “messenger” who will bring down a law. “He will not falter or be discouraged till he establishes justice on earth. In his law the islands will put their hope.” (Isaiah 42:4). Verse 11, connects that awaited one with the descendants of Kedar. Who is Kedar? According to Genesis 25:13, Kedar was the second son of Ishmael, the ancestor of the Prophet Muhammad .
    Jakkass wrote: »
    The answer is obvious, but as a Muslim you cannot accept it because it goes against your beliefs.
    Beliefs are not blind as the interpertation of people.
    Jakkass wrote: »
    Moses brought the Israelites out of slavery in Egypt (Exodus 12).
    Jesus brought those who put their faith and trust in Him out of the slavery of sin. Jesus died once for all so that they might have new life. There are numerous Scriptures that back this up.
    You are saying as jesus was man so moses was man. Is this similarity. You pick a grain of sand and tried to showed it as desert is this honesty?
    Jakkass wrote: »
    If John 3:16-18 is true, why is it necessary to believe in the name of God's one and only son?
    Let us look at the following verses:
    "that everyone who believes in him may have eternal life. "For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life. For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him. (From the NIV Bible, John 3:15-17)"
    First of all, it is important to know that John 3:15-17 is not a quote from Jesus himself in the Bible. It is a quote that exist in the so-called "Gospel of John", but the Gospel itself according to the theologians and historians of the NIV Bible had been tampered with and altered by men, along with most of the Bible's books and gospels.
    The interpretation of John 3:16 can mean that if one doesn't believe in Jesus as the "son of God", and that he died on the cross for our sins, then the person will not have an Eternal Life in Paradise. The problem with this, however, is that, Son of GOD" theory originally comes from pagan Greek origins. And since most of the Bible's New Testament was written in Greek, then it had been without a doubt negatively influenced by such pagan theology, where Jesus being called "Son of GOD" is literally interpreted today as "part of GOD" or the "Creator of the Universe". "Son of God" in Hebrew literally means "Servant of God"
    Jakkass wrote: »
    The original copies don't exist simply because of age. The fact that we have 40,000 copies for checking means that it would have been nonetheless extremely difficult to introduce changes.
    Are you saying original text doesn't exist, interpretations exist.:confused::confused:
    Jakkass wrote: »
    Valid reasoning.
    Why you don't make it more valid by giving required citation to wiki
    Jakkass wrote: »
    How did he agree this? - The Qur'an wasn't written down until 100 years after it was learned orally. The first New Testament letters were written down within 15 years of the Gospel being first proclaimed. Is there more or less chance that error would be introduced in 100 years rather than 15. If I am wrong about the dating please tell me.
    Prophet muhammd was first learner of quran. Isn't it enough for the evidence. He also made his companion to learn quran by heart under his authority.
    Jakkass wrote: »
    This is a poor answer. I suspect that it has something to do with the supposed mathematical "miracles" of the Qur'an rather than anything authoritative.
    Science is good test?


  • Banned (with Prison Access) Posts: 1,320 ✭✭✭dead one


    JimiTime wrote: »
    I think its important to note, that pointing out percieved 'flaws' etc in the Bible, even if right, still DOES NOTHING to further ANY sort of a case for the Quran.

    On a different note, I've talked to Muslims who have posited that because the Quran is the Word of God through one man i.e. Muhammad, it makes it more reliable. I have to say, I think that this is one of its biggest weaknesses. Having more than one witness Declare the revelation of God, being in agreement and given over time is better than having just one man on his own declaring that he has the word of God. Its the Joseph Smith (Mormonism) thing again.
    If by miracle bible says, "Quran is God's word" Will you accept Quran? or argue with bible?:rolleyes:


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 7,418 ✭✭✭JimiTime


    dead one wrote: »
    If by miracle bible says, "Quran is God's word" Will you accept Quran? or argue with bible?:rolleyes:

    Could you please just address the issue I raised?


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  • Banned (with Prison Access) Posts: 1,320 ✭✭✭dead one


    JimiTime wrote: »
    Could you please just address the issue I raised?
    JimiTime wrote: »
    I think its important to note, that pointing out percieved 'flaws' etc in the Bible, even if right, still DOES NOTHING to further ANY sort of a case for the Quran.

    On a different note, I've talked to Muslims who have posited that because the Quran is the Word of God through one man i.e. Muhammad, it makes it more reliable. I have to say, I think that this is one of its biggest weaknesses. Having more than one witness Declare the revelation of God, being in agreement and given over time is better than having just one man on his own declaring that he has the word of God. Its the Joseph Smith (Mormonism) thing again.
    God chooses his messengers among people and Muhammad was last messenger till judgement. You aren't simply understanding!!!. Jesus was messenger like many messengers before him. He wasn't last messenger. if he was than point me where he had told his people that there would no messenger after him. Infact you will find in the bible he had given tiding of something. Why that thing had not come? Think on it? You people are ruining your lives by following interpretation of some unknown men. No one knows those unknown men, Jesus was only for the children of Isreal, he wasnt for whole mankind.
    Jesus (peace be upon him) said"I have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now. Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth." What does Jesus (peace be upon him) mean by "ye cannot bear them now"? If we were to read the Bible, we would find many verses throughout the Bible wherein Jesus (peace be upon him) bemoans the lack of understanding he was constantly greeted with from his disciples throughout his ministry:
    "And he(Jesus) saith unto them(the disciples).....O ye of little faith." (Matthew 8:26)
    "...and (Jesus) said unto him(Peter), O thou of little faith." (Matthew 14:31)
    "he (Jesus) said unto them(the disciples), O ye of little faith." (Matthew 16:8)
    "And he(Jesus) said unto them(the disciples), Where is your faith?" (Luke 8:25)
    Notice that these are not common Jews who he is saying these words to, but his own elect disciples. The Bible vividly illustrates how he is constantly going out of his way to simplify matters for them and to speak to them as one speaks to little children. However, even at that, they still misunderstand. He is finally driven to frustration and made to say:
    "And Jesus said, Are ye even yet without understanding?" (Matthew 15:16)
    and "And Jesus answering said, O faithless and perverse generation, how long shall I be with you, and suffer you?" (Luke 9:41)

    "He came unto his own, and his own received him not." (John 1:11)

    Jesus (peace be upon him) had "all truth," but he could not give it to them because they were not fit to receive it. Therefore, he told them that another would come after him who shall guide them into "all truth" which they could not receive from him. He tells us that the one who will come will "teach you all things." This one who will guide them into "all truth" is described as "The spirit of truth." We have already seen how the word "spirit" in the Bible is synonymous with the word "Prophet." Muhammad (peace be upon him), even before he became the prophet of Islam was known among his people as "Al-sadik Al-amin," which means "The truthful, the trustworthy." Thus, it becomes apparent that Muhammad was indeed "the spirit of truth." Since the departure of Jesus (peace be upon him) and to this day, the "Holy Ghost" has not taught mankind a single new truth not revealed by Jesus (peace be upon him) himself.

    It is important to notice the words "ALL truth" and "MANY things." "Many" and "All" means more than one. What new and innovative teachings has the Holy Ghost given mankind which were not taught by Jesus (peace be upon him)? The Qur'an says:

    "O mankind! The messenger (Muhammad) hath come unto you with the truth from your Lord. Therefore believe; (it is) better for you. But if ye disbelieve, still, lo! unto Allah belongeth whatsoever is in the heavens and the earth. Allah is the All-Knower, the All-Wise." (The noble Qur'an, Al-Nissa(4):120)

    "We (God) have sent you (O Muhammad) with the Truth, as a bringer of glad tidings and a warner." (The noble Qur'an, Al-Baqarah(2):119)

    "Those are the Verses of Allah. We recite them upon you (O Muhammad) in Truth. And verily, you are among the messengers." (The noble Qur'an, Al-Baqarah(2):252)


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 7,418 ✭✭✭JimiTime


    dead one wrote: »
    God chooses his messengers among people and Muhammad was last messenger till judgement. You aren't simply understanding!!!. Jesus was messenger like many messengers before him. He wasn't last messenger. if he was than point me where he had told his people that there would no messenger after him. Infact you will find in the bible he had given tiding of something. Why that thing had not come? Think on it? You people are ruining your lives by following interpretation of some unknown men. No one knows those unknown men, Jesus was only for the children of Isreal, he wasnt for whole mankind.

    Dead One, thank you for taking the time, but I'm wondering if you actually grasp the issue, or are you merely ignoring it?


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