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"People" in arrears or "mortgages" in arrears ?

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  • 08-02-2012 4:33pm
    #1
    johnnyjb
    Registered Users Posts: 366 ✭✭


    Hi , when we get stats about mortgage arrears and negative equity etc. they usually say " there are 30000(?) people in arrears".

    Now, do they mean they have counted the people involved, example couples with a mortgage count as two - or is it 30000 mortgages full stop regardless of the amount of people involved in the mortgage.

    This prob is a stupid question but its been bugging me.


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    #2
    djimi
    Registered Users Posts: 13,237 ✭✭✭✭djimi


    Mortgages I would imagine. Im not sure for the purposes of a report like that they would actually bother working out whether each mortgage is an individual or couple, but maybe Im wrong.


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    #3
    the_syco
    Registered Users Posts: 37,299 ✭✭✭✭the_syco


    johnnyjb wrote: »
    Hi , when we get stats about mortgage arrears and negative equity etc. they usually say " there are 30000(?) people in arrears".
    Depending on their agenda, I'd say. Someone looking to use the "poor me" will use people. If the banks trying to show how good they are, I say they'd use mortgage numbers.

    For example:
    A Bank wanting help:
    We need to help 1,000 people - we need funding to help 1,000 people

    A Bank trying to show how strong it is:
    We're doing great, with only 500 mortgages in the red.


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    #4
    folan
    Closed Accounts Posts: 2,630 ✭✭✭folan


    ive always wondered how they incorporate those with +1 mortgages (buy to renters)


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