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Laws of the game - ask anything!!

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  • Registered Users Posts: 532 ✭✭✭Madd Finn


    TrueDub wrote: »
    A powerplay is a set period of the game (number of overs) where the fielding side may only have a set number of players outside the fielding circle.

    It's designed to provide more space for the batsmen to hit into, thus making the game more exciting. Supposedly.

    I was once told that this only used to apply to the last few overs in a limited overs match and it was because some wiseacre captain (I think it was Mike Brearley) whose team was defending a good but not unassailable lead, put nearly all of his fielders along the boundary, thereby giving the chasing (batting) team the ability to score lots of singles and even twos but made scoring a four all but impossible. A cricketing equivalent of "parking the bus."

    Is there a "bowling" equivalent of the power play and how does it work.


  • Registered Users Posts: 532 ✭✭✭Madd Finn


    And I've a question: for the current World Cup, how are teams level on points at the end of the first round separated? I understand it's to do with net run rate but I don't know how this is calculated.

    Does Ireland have any chance of beating Pakistan and/or West Indies on run rate if we all finish on 6 points?


  • Registered Users Posts: 532 ✭✭✭Madd Finn


    OK so that last question was tumbleweed. So let's try again.

    If two teams finish a match (in this world cup) tied on runs scored is the match automatically declared a tie, or do they count things like number of wickets remaining to decide a winner?

    For example, Ireland and Pakistan are now on six points each with one game left, against each other. West Indies are on four points with one game left against UAE.

    Assuming Windies beat UAE, they will finish level on points with whoever loses the Ireland Pakistan game. It will then come down to whatever method is used to separate teams tied on points (my previous question)

    But if Ireland and Pakistan were to get a point each, then Windies would be out regardless of what they do against UAE.

    So I guess my question is, is it possible for Ireland and Pakistan to get a point each without the game being rained off?

    Remember Austria v West Germany in World cup 82?:D


  • Registered Users Posts: 10,785 ✭✭✭✭Pudsy33


    Madd Finn wrote: »
    And I've a question: for the current World Cup, how are teams level on points at the end of the first round separated? I understand it's to do with net run rate but I don't know how this is calculated.

    Does Ireland have any chance of beating Pakistan and/or West Indies on run rate if we all finish on 6 points?
    Since you asked nicely :)

    Teams on equal points are separated on Net run rate(nrr). Nrr is runs scored/overs batted- runs conceeded/overs bowled. If the batting team is bowled out before it's 50 overs then there score is still divided by 50.

    The answer to your second question is no, we are too far behind. We need a point out of our last game, or we need UAE to avoid defeat to WI.


  • Registered Users Posts: 10,785 ✭✭✭✭Pudsy33


    And yeah, if both teams finish on equal runs the game is drawn. A point each.


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  • Closed Accounts Posts: 14,748 ✭✭✭✭Lovely Bloke


    So, he's correct, Ireland & Pakistan could "engineer" a draw, get 7 points and both go through?


  • Registered Users Posts: 39,570 ✭✭✭✭KevIRL


    So, he's correct, Ireland & Pakistan could "engineer" a draw, get 7 points and both go through?

    A tie perhaps but not a draw. I know how much of a stickler you can be for using the correct terminology


  • Registered Users Posts: 532 ✭✭✭Madd Finn


    So our options are:

    1) Beat Pakistan (Hmm)

    2) "Engineer" a tied game with Pakistan so we both get a point and go through. Nobody would believe us though.

    3) Pray for a downpour in either Napier or Adelaide so that one or other of the matches (Ireland v Pakistan or Windes v UAE) gets rained off and we either get the point we need or the Windies fail to get the two points they need.

    Looks like its a case of the Irish praying for rain. Come on God. It's not like you don't give us enough when we DON'T want it.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 16,096 ✭✭✭✭the groutch


    what's the criteria for a free hit in the WC?
    is it every no ball? can it be given for persistently bowling wides or dangerously high?


  • Moderators, Sports Moderators, Regional Abroad Moderators Posts: 2,646 Mod ✭✭✭✭TrueDub


    what's the criteria for a free hit in the WC?
    is it every no ball? can it be given for persistently bowling wides or dangerously high?

    It's for foot-fault no-balls only - I'm nearly sure it's for back-foot as well as front-foot.

    It cannot be given for the other things you're describing, there are other sanctions for those things - see Law 42 - Fair and Unfair Play


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  • Closed Accounts Posts: 1,288 ✭✭✭HonalD


    TrueDub wrote: »
    I'm nearly sure it's for back-foot as well as front-foot.

    That's my understanding too.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 2,682 ✭✭✭pistol_75


    what's the criteria for a free hit in the WC?
    is it every no ball? can it be given for persistently bowling wides or dangerously high?

    It's for a front foot no ball, so where the bowler oversteps the line. The batsman cannot be out the next ball (except run out).


  • Moderators, Sports Moderators, Regional Abroad Moderators Posts: 2,646 Mod ✭✭✭✭TrueDub


    pistol_75 wrote: »
    It's for a front foot no ball, so where the bowler oversteps the line. The batsman cannot be out the next ball (except run out).

    No it's definitely for all foot-fault no-balls - see Section 24.2 of the Playing Regulations.


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