Being charged on your VISA debit card with out your permission

Farmer Pudsey

MadDog76 wrote: »

I said most reasonable people would agree that the shop is entitled to their money ........

On the laws of averages most of these things balance out. I have been overcharge cash and got wrong change both here and abroad and only spotted it 30 minutes or longer later. At other times I have got the wrong change and only relized later if I spotted it at the till I would tell the checkout assistant.

Is the shop entitled to its money. If they went to court I doubt if they could recover it. And as I stated earlier morality and legality are strange bedfellows.

jimmii

AvonEnniskerry wrote: »

Just to put a different spin on things. What's stopping the employee charging the customer out at a discounted (undercharged) price and then recharging the difference at a later date to pocket themselves. It would be foolish and easy enough to track as an employer but only at audit or if you're aware of the situation.

Honestly I don't think any transaction should have been made after the first sale without prior agreement. I don't understand how or why the retailer managed to keep the consumers card details.

If a shop employee could charge someones card and pocket the money themself then that would be a seriously big problem!

The fact the retailer had the card details to be able to process the payment is a worry they certainly shouldn't access to that information when the customer isn't present. We have four card processing systems and on none of them can you see the card details after the payment has been processed. If retailers are using systems where that is possible then it would seems that it would be quite easy for an unscrupulous employee the start a database of those details and either use it for themselves or sell them on.

lillian770

Outrageous, absolutely outrageous. I would go ballistic if that would have happened to me!

RossieMan

i don't think anyone here has said the shop was right.

Whats annoying most is the dishonesty of the OP.

Nino Brown

The shop had just sold the guy a phone, so it's fair to say they had his contact details. If they made a mistake, then they should have called him and asked him to pay the balance, and maybe hooked him up with some free credit as a goodwill gesture. They can't just take his money without permission.
If I go into a shop and get overcharged, can I walk in the next day and help myself to money from the till?, of course not, that's stealing. Regardless of whether I feel entitled to it or not.

lillian770

RossieMan wrote: »

i don't think anyone here has said the shop was right.

Whats annoying most is the dishonesty of the OP.

Unless it was honest mistake, but then shop would have to call and inform the client, rather than simply charge their credit card.

Farmer Pudsey

RossieMan wrote: »

i don't think anyone here has said the shop was right.

Whats annoying most is the dishonesty of the OP.

What did the Op do that was dishonest. He gave the store what they charged him on the receipt. Could the shop call the Guards if he refused to pay balance. He fulfilled the contract requested of him by the shop.

Paul.k.b.90

levitronix wrote: »

Got a question ?

Can a store change your on your visa debt card with out your permission ?
I bought a phone from vodafone on a high street store, i knew i was under charged and and i have a receipt verifying this , sales desk fault of the guy but he just rang it on wrong and gave me a receipt !
But today i just checked my account and seen i got charged the balance two days later, can they do that without my permission??

I work for a payment processing company and can tell you alot of companies have a feature for there orders that can allow the merchant to charge an additional amount (generally between 10-15%) in case of increased/ mis-calculated shipping/ fees etc. it could be a feature with Vodafones card processor and this could explain as to how they were able to charge the balance

shanepb94

I have a similar issue, but as the party charging the card or the retailer.

I had a customer who I ordered goods in for. We agreed the prices which was €XYX (eg. €212) and he was happy with this.
He came to collect and I again told him the price of €XYX (eg. €212) and he agreed.

I then entered €YXY (eg. €121) into the card machine and charged him an amount with the numbers reversed which he did not pick up on either (or chose not to point it out).

As the proper amount was the agreed amount am I entitled to the remainder?

Also on the questions surrounding if a retailer can re-charge a card, Yes. The "merchant copy" of the reciept printed from the card machine holds enough info to complete a transaction. It does not hold the three security digits on the rear of the card holders card but this is avoided by answering Yes to the machines question of "Is the customer present".

seamus

shanepb94 wrote: »

As the proper amount was the agreed amount am I entitled to the remainder?

In principle, I would say yes. You had both agreed that the card would be charged by that amount, so it shouldn't make any difference in how many transactions that amount was taken.

However, this sounds more like a procedural question that is dealt with by the T's & C's of the payment processor.

They might require that the incorrect amount is refunded and then the full amount charged, rather than apply two separate charges.

MadDog76

shanepb94 wrote: »

I have a similar issue, but as the party charging the card or the retailer.

I had a customer who I ordered goods in for. We agreed the prices which was €XYX (eg. €212) and he was happy with this.
He came to collect and I again told him the price of €XYX (eg. €212) and he agreed.

I then entered €YXY (eg. €121) into the card machine and charged him an amount with the numbers reversed which he did not pick up on either (or chose not to point it out).

As the proper amount was the agreed amount am I entitled to the remainder?

Also on the questions surrounding if a retailer can re-charge a card, Yes. The "merchant copy" of the reciept printed from the card machine holds enough info to complete a transaction. It does not hold the three security digits on the rear of the card holders card but this is avoided by answering Yes to the machines question of "Is the customer present".

You've answered your own question .......... "Is the customer present?", if not then no you cannot do a second transaction.

Greybottle

You are entitled to the difference between €121 and €212.

You are not allowed to charge it to their card without their permission, you will need to contact them to arrange the payment.


In the OP's case, both of them are in the wrong. Once the OP realised that they had been undercharged they should make an effort to point this out, or repay it if they have already left the premisies. Any failure to do so is legally theft. The shop has no right to remove the money from the OP's account without the OP's permission. This is also theft.

Quackster

shanepb94 wrote: »

I have a similar issue, but as the party charging the card or the retailer.

I had a customer who I ordered goods in for. We agreed the prices which was €XYX (eg. €212) and he was happy with this.
He came to collect and I again told him the price of €XYX (eg. €212) and he agreed.

I then entered €YXY (eg. €121) into the card machine and charged him an amount with the numbers reversed which he did not pick up on either (or chose not to point it out).

As the proper amount was the agreed amount am I entitled to the remainder?

Was the correct amount on the receipt you issued (not the card slip)? If it was, I'd say you have a strong case to recover the remaining funds with or without the customer's consent.

If the incorrect amount was on the receipt, then I'd say it's entirely up to the customer whether they wish to do the honest thing as the receipt essentially shows the price at which the contract of sale was entered into.