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How does God speak?

2

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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 9,555 ✭✭✭antiskeptic


    Solo,

    Tell me one objective thing you can say about your theology that isn't rendered subjective by:

    1. It's being diluted by the fact that thousands upon thousands of Christians who approach things as (even more) sincerely, intelligently and knowledgeably as you do, come to alternative, conflicting conclusions

    2. Doesn't rely on your simply saying so.

    3. The Bible contradicting you (at least in basic lines: such as God demonstrably communicating outside his word. Presuppose those basic instances to be thin ends of wedges that others will (have) construct(ed) caverns in your thinking out of)

    4. Presuppositions of your regarding how God is to be understood (i.e. circular reasoning: "my theology says God acts this way, therefore God doesn't act as others hold he acts")



    Just a single thing...


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 56 ✭✭EirWatcher


    Do we have any historical texts from the first century to confirm that as being true?

    No, second:
    St. Jerome, De Viris Illustribus, Ch. 15
    Tertullian, De Praescriptoine Haereticorum, Ch. 23
    If Peter is the Pope and the Pope is infallible, isn't this worth pointing out?

    I didn't see how it is relevant to a discussion on Jesus appointing special significance to the apostle Peter, and of the historical line of succession from Peter?
    I hold to sola scriptura position because the New Testament is the only certain account from the Apostles we have from the first century. I don't apologise for holding to sola scriptura. It's one of the best assurances that we can have that all that is necessary for salvation is in the Bible.

    The correctness and relevance of scripture is something we agree on. You are satisfied your sola scriptura tradition is sufficient for your salvation - I'm glad for it.
    Would you not agree that the function of the Apostles taking the first hand account of the Gospel into the world is different from us taking the secondhand Gospel into the world? Their role and function was special.

    Indeed I do, as I said in my previous response to it. It is because they were so special that it is worth considering the tradition they later established during the early Church, but I'm repeating myself.
    Neither. It's Bible handling and reading comprehension. We need to be careful not to apply inappropriate verses to ourselves. The basic question of who this is addressing and who it is written for can help a great deal.

    I see. I think I'm getting a clearer picture. So there is no interpretation, but, what, absolute scriptural comprehension?
    One other question re. sola scriptura, if you don't mind: You mentioned infallibility. It is possible for a person to be in error (either in their interpretation or comprehension of scripture)? If so, how is that error reconciled with Truth in the Anglican faith tradition?

    Thanks.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 1,739 ✭✭✭solodeogloria


    Good morning all!
    EirWatcher wrote: »
    No, second:
    St. Jerome, De Viris Illustribus, Ch. 15
    Tertullian, De Praescriptoine Haereticorum, Ch. 23

    These are worth a look. I think anything beyond the first century on these issues has scope for doubt however. Do these texts explain how Peter moved from being a minister to the Jews to being a minister of the Gentiles?
    EirWatcher wrote: »
    I didn't see how it is relevant to a discussion on Jesus appointing special significance to the apostle Peter, and of the historical line of succession from Peter?

    In fairness it's my thread and it's already meandered off topic. It is relevant if we're considering Peter as Pope and the Pope is meant to be infallible in respect to faith and morals.
    EirWatcher wrote: »
    The correctness and relevance of scripture is something we agree on. You are satisfied your sola scriptura tradition is sufficient for your salvation - I'm glad for it.

    The thread concerns how God speaks. It's worth considering.
    EirWatcher wrote: »
    Indeed I do, as I said in my previous response to it. It is because they were so special that it is worth considering the tradition they later established during the early Church, but I'm repeating myself.

    The key question is where do we find Apostolic tradition? The only reliable source seems to be in Apostolic writ in the New Testament. What other reliable source do we have?
    EirWatcher wrote: »
    I see. I think I'm getting a clearer picture. So there is no interpretation, but, what, absolute scriptural comprehension?
    One other question re. sola scriptura, if you don't mind: You mentioned infallibility. It is possible for a person to be in error (either in their interpretation or comprehension of scripture)? If so, how is that error reconciled with Truth in the Anglican faith tradition?

    Thanks.

    No. You asked me how I distinguish between what is written for the Apostles and what is written for us. I said reading comprehension. Distinguishing the audience of a passage or a verse is crucial for understanding any text. Not just the Bible.

    I agree that there is room for error between receiving God's word and understanding it. However I believe the Bible is broadly clear. Disagreements tend to arise on secondary issues. Understanding a text isn't a free for all. Language has meaning.

    Much thanks in the Lord Jesus Christ and in His imperishable Word,
    solodeogloria


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,809 ✭✭✭Speedwell


    Of all of us on this thread, Solo is the one I vote "least likely to fall for some cult scam". I'm proud of him. He insists on grounding his faith in the only place a Christian can actually have a prayer (heh) of not falling for their own or other people's off-the-cuff, unsupported hallucinations.* The Bible has been exhaustively analysed and discussed to the point where theology almost mirrors a natural science. "Sola Scriptura" does not, to the best of my knowledge, translate as "Bible infallibility". But it's the best Christianity has to offer for an objective standard.

    Stick to your guns, Solo. Don't settle for placing your faith in someone's say-so.

    *As an ex-Christian ex-liberal-Quaker atheist, I think it's an open question whether the Bible also falls under that description, but I am not here to discuss that and I will not rise to the bait if anyone tries to engage me on it in this thread. And no, I am not trying to tempt Solo into becoming an atheist, not at all. Christianity badly needs people who are honest and sincere and compassionate.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 9,555 ✭✭✭antiskeptic


    Speedwell wrote: »
    Of all of us on this thread, Solo is the one I vote "least likely to fall for some cult scam". I'm proud of him. He insists on grounding his faith in the only place a Christian can actually have a prayer (heh) of not falling for their own or other people's off-the-cuff, unsupported hallucinations.* The Bible has been exhaustively analysed and discussed to the point where theology almost mirrors a natural science. "Sola Scriptura" does not, to the best of my knowledge, translate as "Bible infallibility". But it's the best Christianity has to offer for an objective standard.

    Stick to your guns, Solo. Don't settle for placing your faith in someone's say-so.

    *As an ex-Christian ex-liberal-Quaker atheist, I think it's an open question whether the Bible also falls under that description, but I am not here to discuss that and I will not rise to the bait if anyone tries to engage me on it in this thread. And no, I am not trying to tempt Solo into becoming an atheist, not at all. Christianity badly needs people who are honest and sincere and compassionate.


    The irony of Solo being questioned on an objective measure of his faith and an atheist supporting him in that direction can't, surely, be lost on you.


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,809 ✭✭✭Speedwell


    The irony of Solo being questioned on an objective measure of his faith and an atheist supporting him in that direction can't, surely, be lost on you.

    The irony of Christians arguing that a fellow Christian should abandon his solid Bible-based principles is certainly not lost on me.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 1,739 ✭✭✭solodeogloria


    Good morning all!
    Solo,

    Tell me one objective thing you can say about your theology that isn't rendered subjective by:

    1. It's being diluted by the fact that thousands upon thousands of Christians who approach things as (even more) sincerely, intelligently and knowledgeably as you do, come to alternative, conflicting conclusions

    My point thus far has been there are room for secondary disagreements. I agree on secondary issues there is room for disagreement. However God for the most part does speak clearly which is why I've found a great deal of consensus on the vast majority of issues. I'm happy to discuss the secondary issues. Primary issues such as the substitutionary nature of the atonement of Christ for example are clear. There are clear matters of doctrine that are derived Scripturally that can lead someone away from orthodoxy. Christianity is defined, it is something and broadly speaking we derive this primarily from the Scriptures. Probably because we realise words have meaning and interpretative bounds.
    2. Doesn't rely on your simply saying so.

    That's the precise point. Nothing on this thread relies on my saying so but on God's inspired Word in Scripture.
    3. The Bible contradicting you (at least in basic lines: such as God demonstrably communicating outside his word. Presuppose those basic instances to be thin ends of wedges that others will (have) construct(ed) caverns in your thinking out of)

    Forgive me but didn't I address your point about Abraham? It is a different point in salvation history and God speaking to him was incredibly rare. I believe he waited decades according to Genesis. His revelation wasn't in isolation either. It is bounded together with a common God spoken of by at least 40 others. I don't rule out God speaking by other means but it must line up with the Bible. I've never heard God physically speak and in a way I'm thankful. I hear God speak to me personally and that's quite enough as it is the most sure. It's physically there. I don't need to wait decades for a vision like Abraham. God speaks today and I can hear Him at will and speak to Him at will. As I read John this morning I have a personal encounter with Jesus. As I read Numbers this morning I see a God who tangibly spoke in history.
    4. Presuppositions of your regarding how God is to be understood (i.e. circular reasoning: "my theology says God acts this way, therefore God doesn't act as others hold he acts")

    Incorrect. What I said was that the Bible tells us about the Spirit works. He gives us clear parameters as to what His work is and what it's function is. The Spirit isn't schizophrenic. He won't contradict what He Himself breathed. One of the foundational aspects of the Lord's character in Scripture is immutability. Jesus Christ is the same today, yesterday and forevermore. If the Spirit contradicts the Bible then God changes and that means our assurance in salvation in Jesus is a lot less sure. That's not my God and I hope it isn't yours either.

    Speedwell: sorry to disappoint but I do believe the Bible is inerrant also.

    Here's an article from a charismatic who understands God speaks primarily in the Bible to explain why:
    http://www.thegospelcoalition.org/article/why-i-dont-hate-the-word-inerrancy

    He wrote an excellent book also. Unbreakable : What The Son of God says about the Word of God. A short little book explaining what Jesus Himself believed about the Scriptures.

    Much thanks in the Lord Jesus and in his certain Word,
    solodeogloria


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,809 ✭✭✭Speedwell


    Speedwell: sorry to disappoint but I do believe the Bible is inerrant also.

    Heh, don't worry, I'm not disappointed. In fact I think I rather expected it. I was just pointing out earlier that "Sola Scriptura" did not necessarily entail Biblical infallibility, just that Scripture be the only standard for faith and practice. The decision of what actually constitutes Scripture and the interpretation of the admitted texts is probably a topic for a different thread.

    According to the Bible and Christian tradition, Jesus was a rabbi, speaking to a People of the Book. I think it is obvious from the accepted text of the Bible that he considered Scripture as it existed in his time the ultimate authority. Even during the events of the Passion he is shown to have said very little but quotations from the writings.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 9,555 ✭✭✭antiskeptic


    Speedwell wrote: »
    The irony of Christians arguing that a fellow Christian should abandon his solid Bible-based principles is certainly not lost on me.

    I'm not suggesting he abandon it. I'm suggesting that others supplement it. And that his supposing that supplementation necessarily problematic is itself problematic. He depends on the Spirit to illuminate the scriptures (for without that illumination he would be at sea). Yet he rules out the Spirit illuminating as He pleases outside Scripture. This, in the face of the Spirit, per Scripture, blowing where It wills.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,809 ✭✭✭Speedwell


    I'm not suggesting he abandon it. I'm suggesting that others supplement it. And that his supposing that supplementation necessarily problematic is itself problematic. He depends on the Spirit to illuminate the scriptures (for without that illumination he would be at sea). Yet he rules out the Spirit illuminating as He pleases outside Scripture. This, in the face of the Spirit, per Scripture, blowing where It wills.

    OK, fair enough. I don't mean to suggest that "sola Scriptura" is the only applicable "sola" (and I don't mean to merge these two threads, but I think it's important to bring this in here). I'm hard pressed to guess what a Christian can trust, given that mistakes in interpretation are punished so severely. I think it was right of dissenters to insist on "going to the source material", even though the Catholics preferred to establish "Christian best practices" through their own "theological engineers" the priests, and enforce them by keeping Scripture inaccessible to any but their "in-house" trained scholars. I can actually really see both sides' points. Is it worse to be wrong because you misunderstood the text, or because someone misunderstood it for you? :) I suspect that there's little difference anyway, because someone who really truly honestly believes that their wrong interpretation is right is not likely to keep it to themselves even in a free Reformed-style setting. This is not uniquely a Christian problem, either; it is common to all religions that have scriptures, priests tasked with their interpretation and enforcement, and believers with opinions.

    I read the Andrew Wilson article to which Solo links. To boil it down, I think that Wilson does not expect Christians to believe in what I, an American, would call literal inerrancy, the kind of thing that underlies American fundamentalism, especially given that the fundamentalists appear to give undue weight to some Scriptural passages at the expense of other passages or even of observed reality. I think Wilson wants what, for lack of a better term, I might call conditional inerrancy, which puts us back at square one, asking, "how does God tell us what he wants us to take literally and what he wants us to understand as literary license or applicable only to certain conditions?" I see many theologians engaged in the very difficult task of constructing a filter of history, interpretation, criticism, and comparison that, when applied, will actually show a Bible that is demonstrably inerrant, in perfect agreement with both observed reality and with God's law and practice. It's recursive. They have nothing but the Bible to tell them how to proceed, really. So another question is whether the Bible is a puzzle that contains the instructions for its own assembly.

    I suppose the best answer to these questions will consist of some sort of assertion that the present form of the Bible is as divinely inspired as the contents themselves. In other words, God is presumed to use even forgers, theological/political maneuverers in Bible conferences, and writers of accepted canon who erroneously quote prior material as tools to work his divine will on the Bible over time. I'm not sure whether anyone here actually argues that or not.


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  • Closed Accounts Posts: 1,739 ✭✭✭solodeogloria


    Good afternoon!
    I'm not suggesting he abandon it. I'm suggesting that others supplement it. And that his supposing that supplementation necessarily problematic is itself problematic. He depends on the Spirit to illuminate the scriptures (for without that illumination he would be at sea). Yet he rules out the Spirit illuminating as He pleases outside Scripture. This, in the face of the Spirit, per Scripture, blowing where It wills.


    I think you're confusing my proposition which is that God speaks primarily and most clearly through Scripture to ruling out other form of revelation entirely, which I haven't actually done.

    I don't see a problem with understanding what the Bible says about the Spirit in order to understand how He works. I agree that the Spirit blows where He wills, John chapter 3 is referring to salvation.

    Much thanks in the Lord Jesus Christ the true Word of God,
    solodeogloria


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 9,555 ✭✭✭antiskeptic


    I think you're confusing my proposition which is that God speaks primarily and most clearly through Scripture to ruling out other form of revelation entirely, which I haven't actually done.

    You queried how someone might tell whether a non-scriptural communication from God could be discerned as from God and not the devil. And my challenge back to you was how you do same with scriptural communication - given that you appear to hold that latter means of communication necessarily superior.

    1. I don't see how you suppose primacy of scripture in any objective way.

    2. I don't see how you differentiate between scriptural communication and non-scriptural communication, given it is the Spirit who would be breathing life into either of them. If he can breath into the one, then he can breath into the other - without anyone being able to objectively hold he does to either one - whatever about a persons own experience convincing them so.

    3. It appears your position centres on what makes sense to you. We've seen how it is that that which makes sense to you hasn't made the same sense to plenty of other well-intentioned Christians o'er the years.


    4. Whilst I hold that "what makes sense to me" is the only way each and every individual Christian can arrive at a personal theology, there is no way to objectivize this necessarily subjective approach. Nor can you objectivize the subjective conclusions arrived at by that approach


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 9,555 ✭✭✭antiskeptic


    Speedwell wrote: »
    I'm hard pressed to guess what a Christian can trust, given that mistakes in interpretation are punished so severely.

    It seems to me that the only thing a Christian can trust is whatever appears to make so much sense to them that the problems reduce to niggles. The subject matter is so large (I mean, God vs No God is question so large, the answer to which has such profound implications for the whole of humanity, that issues regarding this or that translation or ToE apparently blowing a gaping hole below the waterline of YEC are rendered trivial.)

    This isn't a simple matter of intellectual satisfaction. It runs a course through the whole of a being.

    Since there isn't any option but to go with what makes sense to you, one must suppose that good enough for God.


    Is it worse to be wrong because you misunderstood the text, or because someone misunderstood it for you? :)

    Having worked for a multinational, in which the bulk of a persons effort appears to be protecting position, I know which I'm inclined to suppose. God won't be so fooled.

    As it is, a persons understanding of scripture doesn't strike me as of any necessity - else there's going to be a whole lot of people in Hell, there for the simple fact they were born before the scriptures existed or never had any access to them.



    I read the Andrew Wilson article to which Solo links. To boil it down, I think that Wilson does not expect Christians to believe in what I, an American, would call literal inerrancy, the kind of thing that underlies American fundamentalism, especially given that the fundamentalists appear to give undue weight to some Scriptural passages at the expense of other passages or even of observed reality.

    "Da Bye-bell sez it, ah bo-lieve it, dat settliz it (T&C's apply)"

    I think Wilson wants what, for lack of a better term, I might call conditional inerrancy, which puts us back at square one, asking, "how does God tell us what he wants us to take literally and what he wants us to understand as literary license or applicable only to certain conditions?" I see many theologians engaged in the very difficult task of constructing a filter of history, interpretation, criticism, and comparison that, when applied, will actually show a Bible that is demonstrably inerrant, in perfect agreement with both observed reality and with God's law and practice. It's recursive. They have nothing but the Bible to tell them how to proceed, really. So another question is whether the Bible is a puzzle that contains the instructions for its own assembly.


    My suspicion is that it doesn't actually matter. Either God speaks to his people through his word and illuminates as necessary for that particular stage in a persons walk. Or he doesn't.

    I hold it a fools errand to suppose that by mere intellectual application, the Bible's purpose can be unearthed. Which isn't to say you switch your mind off. There is as much in a grain of it such as to keep a man chewing on his own dilemma even where he to live a hundred lifetimes. Like the heavens, the point isn't so much to try to gain information about every component of it such as to gain intellectual mastery of that environment, but to stand in awe of it. The awe will do more work than any purely intellectual endeavour.

    Isn't our chief problem Pride? And isn't it's antidote, humility?

    I suppose the best answer to these questions will consist of some sort of assertion that the present form of the Bible is as divinely inspired as the contents themselves. In other words, God is presumed to use even forgers, theological/political maneuverers in Bible conferences, and writers of accepted canon who erroneously quote prior material as tools to work his divine will on the Bible over time. I'm not sure whether anyone here actually argues that or not.


    I don't think you'd be wrong. I think the flaw is to put the Bible on a pedestal and suppose it God. Rather than a tool in the hands of a very smart God who has any number of people to attempt to connect with, by whichever ways he can connect to them. He has a habit of using peoples mistakes and evil doing to that end. Why be surprised if he does the same with his word man made? I wouldn't be.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 1,739 ✭✭✭solodeogloria


    Good morning all!
    You queried how someone might tell whether a non-scriptural communication from God could be discerned as from God and not the devil. And my challenge back to you was how you do same with scriptural communication - given that you appear to hold that latter means of communication necessarily superior.

    Which is still a fair question. Personal revelation (which I don't rule out) must be tested against Scriptural revelation. I.E it must be placed in the context of the Biblical revelation between God and man to the prophets and Apostles over centuries. The risks of not testing personal revelation against Scriptural revelation are great because people are easily deceived or are easily led to justify their own sinfulness. I hold Scriptural revelation more highly as all Christians do when establishing what Christians believe. If a personal revelation didn't sit in a consistent manner with the Bible it'd ring alarm bells because the Bible is the yardstick.
    1. I don't see how you suppose primacy of scripture in any objective way.

    And this seems to be because you don't see the difference between words received for all versus a personal revelation. It also seems to be because you don't recognise that words have interpretative bounds. I agree I can't help you understand with those assumptions.
    2. I don't see how you differentiate between scriptural communication and non-scriptural communication, given it is the Spirit who would be breathing life into either of them. If he can breath into the one, then he can breath into the other - without anyone being able to objectively hold he does to either one - whatever about a persons own experience convincing them so.

    What I've bolded is my question. How do we determine if a personal revelation is of God without the Bible?
    3. It appears your position centres on what makes sense to you. We've seen how it is that that which makes sense to you hasn't made the same sense to plenty of other well-intentioned Christians o'er the years.

    Have we? I don't know many Christians o'er the years who would give equal weight to personal revelation and Scripture.
    4. Whilst I hold that "what makes sense to me" is the only way each and every individual Christian can arrive at a personal theology, there is no way to objectivize this necessarily subjective approach. Nor can you objectivize the subjective conclusions arrived at by that approach

    And I disagree with that. Christians also have the objective source of the Bible. That's part 1. Part 2 is the interpretation. Which I agree is subjective but it is still subject to the interpretative bounds of part 1.
    "Da Bye-bell sez it, ah bo-lieve it, dat settliz it (T&C's apply)"

    Actually as the years go on I agree with this. If the Bible does say it, it does settle it. Of course it does! God is God, I am not. Sure we can affirm it externally or with general revelation but the Bible does indeed settle it as it is God's objective Word to us. I sit under it and not over it.
    I hold it a fools errand to suppose that by mere intellectual application, the Bible's purpose can be unearthed. Which isn't to say you switch your mind off. There is as much in a grain of it such as to keep a man chewing on his own dilemma even where he to live a hundred lifetimes. Like the heavens, the point isn't so much to try to gain information about every component of it such as to gain intellectual mastery of that environment, but to stand in awe of it. The awe will do more work than any purely intellectual endeavour.

    Did I say this?
    I don't think you'd be wrong. I think the flaw is to put the Bible on a pedestal and suppose it God. Rather than a tool in the hands of a very smart God who has any number of people to attempt to connect with, by whichever ways he can connect to them. He has a habit of using peoples mistakes and evil doing to that end. Why be surprised if he does the same with his word man made? I wouldn't be.

    Most of the time when I hear this it is from theological liberals who want to undermine what the Bible says on a certain issue. However, it's worth saying that I don't believe the Bible is God, but it is the primary means of how He has revealed Himself to us. So of course I take it seriously, and perhaps should take it more seriously!

    Much thanks in the Lord Jesus Christ,
    solodeogloria


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,809 ✭✭✭Speedwell


    Arkady wrote: »
    An atheist can read scripture to the cows come home and it will still be incomprehensible to them.

    Mmmm, think so?


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 433 ✭✭Arkady



    However, it's worth saying that I don't believe the Bible is God, but it is the primary means of how He has revealed Himself to us. So of course I take it seriously, and perhaps should take it more seriously!

    Scripture is important, and a qualified, careful, authoritative, consistent, apostolic interpretation of it is even more important (or you might as well hand a monkey a machine gun) but scripture isn't the primary means God has revealed himself to us, and never has been.

    An atheist can read scripture to the cows come home and it will still be incomprehensible and meaningless for them.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 1,739 ✭✭✭solodeogloria


    Good evening all!
    Arkady wrote: »
    Scripture is important, and a qualified, careful, authoritative, consistent, apostolic interpretation of it is even more important (or you might as well hand a monkey a machine gun) but scripture isn't the primary means God has revealed himself to us, and never has been.

    God has spoken through the prophets and most supremely in His Son. All of this is recorded for us in Scripture. I believe we need to be extremely wary of "the Bible is important but" sentence prefixes. Why should it be qualified?
    Arkady wrote: »
    An atheist can read scripture to the cows come home and it will still be incomprehensible and meaningless for them.

    Yes because the Spirit is the one who softens hearts and the Spirit enables the reader to understand. I agree with this principle. The Holy Spirit speaks through the Bible to us. It's how God has primarily revealed Himself to us. In these last days God speaks through His Son.

    I'm happy to hear alternatives but so far none have been presented.

    Much thanks in the Lord Jesus Christ,
    solodeogloria


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 9,555 ✭✭✭antiskeptic


    Personal revelation (which I don't rule out) must be tested against Scriptural revelation. I.E it must be placed in the context of the Biblical revelation between God and man to the prophets and Apostles over centuries. The risks of not testing personal revelation against Scriptural revelation are great because people are easily deceived or are easily led to justify their own sinfulness. I hold Scriptural revelation more highly as all Christians do when establishing what Christians believe. If a personal revelation didn't sit in a consistent manner with the Bible it'd ring alarm bells because the Bible is the yardstick.

    You're repeating an assertion. I was asking how you undergird this assertion. How do you objectivize it.


    And this seems to be because you don't see the difference between words received for all versus a personal revelation. It also seems to be because you don't recognise that words have interpretative bounds. I agree I can't help you understand with those assumptions.

    Words received for all are more general than words received for you. There is a place for both.

    The interpretive bounds of a word are x, the interpretive bounds for many words in combination is many x. Which is why you have so many different views. Your assumption appears to be (forgive me if I've got that wrong) that your particular interpretation is correct. You haven't addressed the issue of many contradictory interpretations and how you surmount the problem of your arrival at particular meaning being other than a personally arrived at meaning (whatever about the personal thought, reflection, opinions of others you personally take on board .. that might help you draw your conclusion)

    You can't objectively undergird what strikes as a personal word from God by invoking what is but a personal interpretation of the Word. Personal x personal = personal.

    Now, you might well copperfasten your view of what seems personal revelation by personal interpretation of the Word, view of people you respect ( a personal thing). It's all personal in the end.


    What I've bolded is my question. How do we determine if a personal revelation is of God without the Bible?

    How do we determine if a personal interpretation is from God full stop? In the face of multiple possibilities that is.

    I'm suggesting the personal, subjective conclusion arrived at is the result of your own decision that this, all things considered, makes sense. And if you feel the Spirit is revealing to you then that copperfastens it.

    The product of personal evaluation + the belief the Spirit is at work. Just the same as is applied to personal revelation outside Scripture.


    Question: you receive a specific word from God regarding a specific thing: let's say an encouragement to progress past a particular situation your challenged by. Or you receive same encouragement about the same issue by reading something in the Bible that has no direct contextual bearing on the issue to hand.

    How do you know the encouragement is from God. Simply because it was the Bible you were reading in the latter case? If so, then you must explain how you suppose the Bible God's word in the first place. Without using the words personal conviction. :)

    Have we? I don't know many Christians o'er the years who would give equal weight to personal revelation and Scripture.

    That wasn't the point being made. The point being made was that there are a wide variety of views held by Christians about issues large and small. The objectivity you suppose the Bible as providing you isn't in fact objective. Which makes problematic the notion that personal revelation need be subservient to the Bible. Perhaps personal revelation provides more conviction to a person than the Bible

    You do accept that the conviction quotient attaching to anything you read from the Bible is decided upon by God - not yourself. And it only takes God to attach more conviction quotient to a personal word for that to have more conviction value.

    Remember: the argument "but what do you measure this revelation against" is a question that is applied to your biblical interpretation to. There is no measure - merely personal conviction that you are on the right, Spirit-led track.


    And I disagree with that. Christians also have the objective source of the Bible. That's part 1. Part 2 is the interpretation. Which I agree is subjective but it is still subject to the interpretative bounds of part 1.

    The objective source of the Bible is problematic because of translation/versions. A subjective notion sidesteps that an supposes God ensuring it's objectively his word.

    I've made the point about interpretive bounds already. I'm not quite sure, still, how you deal with the many interpretations that exist outside your own. You earlier alluded to the simplicity of the Bible message and the need to simply read it to understand it. This doesn't wash with the one objective reality in all this: multiple contradictory views extant.


    Did I say this?


    Not that I recall. I was posting to another.


    Most of the time when I hear this it is from theological liberals who want to undermine what the Bible says on a certain issue. However, it's worth saying that I don't believe the Bible is God, but it is the primary means of how He has revealed Himself to us. So of course I take it seriously, and perhaps should take it more seriously!

    This time your hearing it from someone who neither wishes to undermine what the Bible says nor wishes to follow sheep-like down a denominational/interpretive pathway simply because it is followed by many

    As I observe the church at work I see the trappings of humanity all over it: the tendency to flock behind personalities, the tendency to want fixed answers, the tendency for birds of a feather to accumulate so that individual churchs (and I'm speaking of evangelical and charismatic churchs here). All forces tending the church towards the middle ground, or as a reaction to what can be a stullifying experience in the middle, to the extremes.

    The Bible contains God's written revelation to man. And it contains truth, advice, comfort and hope without end. Of that I have been personally convinced. But I've not been convinced of many other things that have been supposed of it by men o'er the ages.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 9,555 ✭✭✭antiskeptic


    Yes because the Spirit is the one who softens hearts and the Spirit enables the reader to understand. I agree with this principle. The Holy Spirit speaks through the Bible to us.

    And without the Spirit, as Arkady implies, the Bible would meaningless to us.

    Our dependence thus, is on the Spirit for every bit of conviction we have, not on the Bible (which is dead or alive, depending on whether the Spirit active). If we are convicted in our reading it is only because He acts upon us at that point.

    It follows that if we are convicted that something we have read is from God, it is only because He has acted. It is not the words on the page itself that bring the conviction.

    Conviction is a state we find ourselves in. It is something done to us, not something we can do for ourselves. Without me .. and all that.

    If we find ourselves convicted then we suppose the Spirit to have acted on us. There is nothing else we can suppose to have happened

    It follows that the medium used by the Spirit to convict is irrelevant, since the medium itself has no convicting power whatsoever.

    This point is undergirded (in the negative) by the fact that...

    It's how God has primarily revealed Himself to us. In these last days God speaks through His Son.

    The notion that the Bible is God's primary way of revealing himself to us hasn't a biblical foundation.

    His speaking through is Son isn't his speaking through his Spirit, which is how the Bible comes alive in our hands.

    I'm happy to hear alternatives but so far none have been presented.


    There needn't be alternatives since there needn't be a prime means of God's communicating. There can simply be God communicating with man through whatever means God chooses to be appropriate to the person, time and place


    This isn't to deny the importance of the Bible but the view of it's primacy is problematic in the extreme. How did God communicate to all the Christians people who have lived and still live, in post NT times, and who had no access to a Bible. Were there no Christians in places without the Bible? If there were, how did he communicate with them?

    Or is it simply a matter of us being lucky enough to live in the time of the printing press?


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 9,555 ✭✭✭antiskeptic


    Speedwell wrote: »
    Mmmm, think so?

    I gather from a Christian friend who did Theology in Trinity that all the Theologians there are atheists.#

    Take heart: with a thousand and one different Christian takes on the Bible, there's Noah's Ark-like room for an atheists view

    (You're something of a plastic atheist anyway, iirc)


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  • Closed Accounts Posts: 1,739 ✭✭✭solodeogloria


    Good morning all!
    You're repeating an assertion. I was asking how you undergird this assertion. How do you objectivize it.

    No - I'm explaining why the Bible is objectively revealed and objectively spoken. This is part 1. In so far as you have the Bible before you as well as I do that is evidence that God has objectively spoken into this world. The Bible is here, what do we make of it? That is part 2. I agree it is subjective but the interpretative bounds are stronger than what you think. You know what my posts mean for example because the interpretative bounds of the words I use are tight. Why do you presume God can't do the same with His Word?
    Words received for all are more general than words received for you. There is a place for both.

    The Bible can and does speak to people personally. As I read Deuteronomy and John every morning God speaks to me and challenges me.
    The interpretive bounds of a word are x, the interpretive bounds for many words in combination is many x. Which is why you have so many different views. Your assumption appears to be (forgive me if I've got that wrong) that your particular interpretation is correct. You haven't addressed the issue of many contradictory interpretations and how you surmount the problem of your arrival at particular meaning being other than a personally arrived at meaning (whatever about the personal thought, reflection, opinions of others you personally take on board .. that might help you draw your conclusion)

    We've combined quite a lot of words together so far and we're doing OK. My view is simple and established by centuries. God speaks most clearly and primarily in the Bible. All spiritual things must be tested. You've even just said that the Bible is a general revelation (objective to all).
    You can't objectively undergird what strikes as a personal word from God by invoking what is but a personal interpretation of the Word. Personal x personal = personal.

    See my answer above explaining the distinction between parts 1 and 2 and what I said about interpretative bounds.
    How do we determine if a personal interpretation is from God full stop? In the face of multiple possibilities that is.

    You've acknowledged above that the Bible is a general revelation. That's a good place to start and since the interpretative bounds are significantly narrower it seems a logical place to start also.
    Question: you receive a specific word from God regarding a specific thing: let's say an encouragement to progress past a particular situation your challenged by. Or you receive same encouragement about the same issue by reading something in the Bible that has no direct contextual bearing on the issue to hand.

    How do you know the encouragement is from God. Simply because it was the Bible you were reading in the latter case? If so, then you must explain how you suppose the Bible God's word in the first place. Without using the words personal conviction. :)

    I acknowledged in full that I don't hear voices or have vision. I hear God speak to me as I read His Word but I'll walk with you.

    The way I would check this would be as follows:
    1) Is the word consistent with the Bible?
    2) is the behaviour that I am being encouraged for consistent with the Bible?
    3) is the character of God revealed in this "specific word" consistent with the Bible?

    I would need to test the spirits as the Bible says. There's been quite a lot of issues when people take a "specific word" and contradicts the Bible with it. The simple answer then is that it is not of God as we're told God is immutable by nature Biblically. He remains the same and thank God for that.
    That wasn't the point being made. The point being made was that there are a wide variety of views held by Christians about issues large and small. The objectivity you suppose the Bible as providing you isn't in fact objective. Which makes problematic the notion that personal revelation need be subservient to the Bible. Perhaps personal revelation provides more conviction to a person than the Bible

    Objective = part 1
    Subjective = part 2
    You do accept that the conviction quotient attaching to anything you read from the Bible is decided upon by God - not yourself. And it only takes God to attach more conviction quotient to a personal word for that to have more conviction value.

    Yes. But God primarily has spoken through His Son this side of the cross. It is very dangerous to not test the spirits against God's general revelation. This is the tangible Biblical context we find ourselves in. Right now if it is post cross, pre return of Jesus. I suspect that if the "specific word" doesn't draw us to Jesus that it ought to be questioned.
    Remember: the argument "but what do you measure this revelation against" is a question that is applied to your biblical interpretation to. There is no measure - merely personal conviction that you are on the right, Spirit-led track.

    I don't believe it does in the same way. The buck stops with the Bible. It is the only general account of God's character we see revealed. That's why it is the yardstick and rightly so.
    The objective source of the Bible is problematic because of translation/versions. A subjective notion sidesteps that an supposes God ensuring it's objectively his word.

    At the end of the day we have the manuscripts to compare if you doubt the authenticity of the Bible. We can have confidence thanks to the evidence that God has graciously given. Pop down to the Chester Beatty Library in Dublin if you've not been.
    I've made the point about interpretive bounds already. I'm not quite sure, still, how you deal with the many interpretations that exist outside your own. You earlier alluded to the simplicity of the Bible message and the need to simply read it to understand it. This doesn't wash with the one objective reality in all this: multiple contradictory views extant.

    I've mentioned primary and secondary issues. Primary issues are Biblically clear, the rejection of which lead to heresy. For example denial of the Trinity or the rejection of Christ's divinity. Secondary issues are matters which are not Biblically clear. Like adult baptism or infant baptism. As Paul says in Romans and 1 Corinthians there's freedom on these issues.
    As I observe the church at work I see the trappings of humanity all over it: the tendency to flock behind personalities, the tendency to want fixed answers, the tendency for birds of a feather to accumulate so that individual churchs (and I'm speaking of evangelical and charismatic churchs here). All forces tending the church towards the middle ground, or as a reaction to what can be a stullifying experience in the middle, to the extremes.

    I've seen quite a number of church related train wrecks myself. This is what can happen when sinful people who wouldn't normally hang around together otherwise (myself included!) are brought together by Jesus. All the more need for us to focus on Jesus by looking to His character in His Word. This is where Biblical focus is required.
    The Bible contains God's written revelation to man. And it contains truth, advice, comfort and hope without end. Of that I have been personally convinced. But I've not been convinced of many other things that have been supposed of it by men o'er the ages.

    The only difference is that I regard it as supremely authoritative and you don't. I'm happy to disagree on this issue but I believe there are clear dangers in it.

    Edit:
    This isn't to deny the importance of the Bible but the view of it's primacy is problematic in the extreme. How did God communicate to all the Christians people who have lived and still live, in post NT times, and who had no access to a Bible. Were there no Christians in places without the Bible? If there were, how did he communicate with them?

    They had the Apostolic witness of the Apostles until the Scriptures came in final form.

    Much thanks in the Lord Jesus Christ,
    solodeogloria


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,809 ✭✭✭Speedwell


    I gather from a Christian friend who did Theology in Trinity that all the Theologians there are atheists.#

    Take heart: with a thousand and one different Christian takes on the Bible, there's Noah's Ark-like room for an atheists view

    (You're something of a plastic atheist anyway, iirc)

    Must you do this? If I'm a plastic atheist, it's a good thing I'm PTFE, or I might take offense. :)

    Instead I'll just ask why, if Scripture is so impenetrable to atheists, Christians automatically and consistently appeal to it when attempting to convert/debate non-Christians?


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 56 ✭✭EirWatcher


    The key question is where do we find Apostolic tradition? The only reliable source seems to be in Apostolic writ in the New Testament. What other reliable source do we have?

    That is the crucial question, and is directly relevant to the thread topic: how does God speak to us.

    Where do we find apostolic tradition? Firstly in the Bible.
    "So then, brethren, stand firm and hold to the traditions which you were taught by us, either by word of mouth or by letter" (2 Thess. 2:15)
    "What you have heard from me before many witnesses entrust to faithful men who will be able to teach others also" (2 Tim. 2:2).
    This second passage, in particular, shows Paul's concern that apostolic tradition be continued after the death of the apostles,
    through subsequent generations. It also tells of the importance of the early spoken ministry of the apostles in passing on the Word of God, (at least equal to what they had written).

    It was the importance of those who considered themselves to be pursuing that apostolic tradition that lead to the Councils of Carthage, the outcomes of which were documented. At one of these, the canon of the Bible was determined (which also formed the basis of the later re-translated/abridged Protestant Bibles).

    Now if the Bible is the the Word of God, then surely those who were deciding on the bounds of that Word, must have been doing so inspired by God through the Holy Spirit? So this demonstrates the Holy Spirit remaining with Christ's Church (beyond the initial apostles), at least in part through the observance of apostolic tradition.

    It may also be of interest to you, that in the early church there were other very popular writings of the early Church Father's at the time (such as Clement's letters to the Corinthians) that the Council decided in their wisdom to *exclude* from sacred scripture and limit it to writings only of those disciples who had direct revelation from Jesus.
    Over one and a half millennia ago, the followers of the apostles shared your concern for care in the sacredness of holy scripture.

    It can make the faithful from the Protestant traditions uneasy, I know, to have to consider apostolic succession in the tradition of the Church, especially as information is only available outside the bounds of Bible scripture (partly by the early Church father's self-censorship of their own writings from the Bible), but their writings are still there, and the workings of apostolic tradition can be seen in the church still today in the synod's and councils of Rome. I doubt the Spirit left Christ's community of disciples after one or two generations!
    Do these texts explain how Peter moved from being a minister to the Jews to being a minister of the Gentiles?

    To the best of my knowledge, that information isn't out there.
    Scripture - even though its content has historical context and is interpreted within that context - has gaps in its own historical information.
    Christians were under persecution, so some apostles may have been circumspect about leaving uncoded written evidence of their movements (such as Peter's cryptic greetings from "Babylon" in Peter 5:13).
    From scripture we know of the Council of Jerusalem and what was indicated for which apostles would minister to which communities.
    We also know that scripture hints at some subsequent emerging differences:
    "When Cephas came to Antioch, I opposed him to his face, because he had clearly done wrong. Until certain people came from James, he had been eating with the Gentiles. But when they arrived, he stopped doing this and separated himself because he was afraid of those who were pro-circumcision." (Gal 2:11-12)

    Its intriguing, but can only lead to some un-biblical speculation.

    Did something happen in Jerusalem, or Rome? Perhaps some events, or all-too-human rivalries drove them to the same location. Whatever the reason, historical context, post-scriptural texts, and archaeological evidence indicate that both Paul and Peter were martyred in Rome - the two strands of the Pauline and Petrine ministries brought into the heart of the Roman empire, the Holy Spirit of the Church leading them to unity as sacrificial witnesses to Jesus Christ. All differences set aside. We may never know. We may never have been meant to know. But even the not knowing opens us up to the mystery and enlightenment of faith.


    It's been an interesting thread - thank you.


    Happy Easter to you also. May the Spirit of the risen Christ bring you great joy and peace.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 1,739 ✭✭✭solodeogloria


    Good evening all!

    EirWatcher:

    Thanks for this.

    I was going to break down your post piece by piece. But your first point didn't answer my question about what source other than the New Testament we can reliably consult to ascertain what Apostolic tradition is.

    I have no issue with Apostolic succession but I would understand it differently to you. I don't believe it is confined to the Roman Catholic Church because early Christianity predates Rome. Every Christian can trace a line of conversion back to the Apostles. That doesn't make Apostolic Succession as remarkable as many would point out other than that God graciously saves people in every generation.

    On the second question you've simply stated that we have archaeological evidence that Peter was in Rome. I'd be interested to see this as others claim he died in Israel. I don't believe that Peter was considered a Pope in the same sense as in the modern Catholic Church. Peter erred on inclusion of the Gentiles and Paul rebuked him.

    Let me know if you've got any thoughts that can answer the questions.

    Much thanks in the Lord Jesus Christ,
    solodeogloria


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 9,555 ✭✭✭antiskeptic


    No - I'm explaining why the Bible is objectively revealed and objectively spoken.

    The (repeated) assertion I'm asking you to undergird is this: how you hold the Bible to be Gods Word in the objective sense. How, as in, what is your objectively demonstrable argument. Let me say I don't have an objective argument myself - I was merely convinced by, what I believe to have been, God.
    In so far as you have the Bible before you as well as I do that is evidence that God has objectively spoken into this world.

    I'm not sure what you're trying to say here. How does us having the Bible before us constitute evidence that the Bible is an instrument (let's call it) of God. As opposed to what atheists consider it to be?
    The Bible is here, what do we make of it? That is part 2. I agree it is subjective but the interpretative bounds are stronger than what you think. You know what my posts mean for example because the interpretative bounds of the words I use are tight. Why do you presume God can't do the same with His Word?

    Because the Bible is full of concepts that are utterly alien to the world? Because it's written in any number of styles that people aren't as conversant with as vernacular language? And when we do write in those other styles (such as in poetry or song) different interpretations arise in the listener. Witness U2: do you think the words of one of the most popular bands in the world are understood for what they actually mean? That thousands flock to their gigs understanding what the subject matter of so many of their songs are?

    You seem too, to forget that the Bible's most valuable worth lies in it's being revealed by the Spirit. This can't be said of yours or my posts.

    My view is simple and established by centuries. God speaks most clearly and primarily in the Bible. All spiritual things must be tested. You've even just said that the Bible is a general revelation (objective to all).

    Your view is your view and it's age (and the fact it is shared, presumably by many) doesn't render it correct. Ever open a bad bottle of wine stored for an age in a cellar?

    You seem bent on sidestepping the fact that alternative views are also held by many and have been around for centuries. Calvinism for example (I'm supposing you not a Calvinist). You might address this fly in the ointment?

    Spiritual things must indeed be tested. We're discussing the supposition of yours that the Bible is the primary measure.

    General as in 'considered to contain fundamental theology and principles and more'. Extracting what that theology, principles, etc. are is quite an other matter. As the body Christianity, with it's myriad of views, testifies to.


    I'll use the U2 analogy again: U2 had a meaning in mind when writing the words to a song. People, on the other hand, might extract all kinds of meaning from it, many probably not even close to the mark.


    You've acknowledged above that the Bible is a general revelation. That's a good place to start and since the interpretative bounds are significantly narrower it seems a logical place to start also.

    I've clarified generality (as I consider God's intent to have been). I've restated my requesting you dealing a bit more rigorously with 'interpretive bounds' (given the Everest-like problem it faces by way of multiple views among Christians.


    The way I would check this would be as follows:
    1) Is tI acknowledged in full that I don't hear voices or have vision. I hear God speak to me as I read His Word but I'll walk with you. he word consistent with the Bible?
    2) is the behaviour that I am being encouraged for consistent with the Bible?
    3) is the character of God revealed in this "specific word" consistent with the Bible?

    I would need to test the spirits as the Bible says. There's been quite a lot of issues when people take a "specific word" and contradicts the Bible with it. The simple answer then is that it is not of God as we're told God is immutable by nature Biblically. He remains the same and thank God for that.

    You didn't address the question. I didn't ask you how you apply the presumption that the Bible is God's primary measure. I asked how you conclude it the primary measure in the first place.

    (This is a repeat of the question posed again to you at the head of this post so no need to repeat here, unless you haven't addressed it there.)


    Objective = part 1
    Subjective = part 2

    Awaiting clarification on both points in above queries.


    Yes. But God primarily has spoken through His Son this side of the cross. It is very dangerous to not test the spirits against God's general revelation.

    This is the tangible Biblical context we find ourselves in. Right now if it is post cross, pre return of Jesus. I suspect that if the "specific word" doesn't draw us to Jesus that it ought to be questioned.

    Whoa! You've morphed from "through His Son" to "through the Bible" without showing your work. You were speaking earlier of 'interpretive boundaries'. Perhaps this is the time to show how you arrive at such an interpretation so that these boundaries can be examined for their obviousness.

    I would accept that we are post-Cross, pre-return but don't see how that informs the leap from through his Son to biblical primacy.

    For me, interpretive boundary would go something like "The words of scriptures past, this epistle and the epistle of my fellow apostles constitutes, from this day forth, God's primary communication with man" inserted somewhere around the end of the book of Romans.


    I don't believe it does in the same way. The buck stops with the Bible. It is the only general account of God's character we see revealed. That's why it is the yardstick and rightly so.

    I'm less after what you believe and more after how you undergird that belief in rigorous fashion. Various challenges have been set you in this regard: how you consider the Bible God's objective instrument. How you circumvent the fact that interpretive boundaries are wide enough to allow buses to drive through. Those kind of things..


    At the end of the day we have the manuscripts to compare if you doubt the authenticity of the Bible. We can have confidence thanks to the evidence that God has graciously given.

    At the end of the day we have numerous was of translating those manuscripts (and will no doubt have more). Folk far smarter and well-positioned that you or I have examined those manuscripts, evaluated the differences between them, evaluated the overall weight of evidence this way and that ... and have come up with different versions. Your simple assertion dodges the weight of objective reality.

    There is no authority to say which translation is the authority.


    I've mentioned primary and secondary issues. Primary issues are Biblically clear, the rejection of which lead to heresy. For example denial of the Trinity or the rejection of Christ's divinity. Secondary issues are matters which are not Biblically clear. Like adult baptism or infant baptism. As Paul says in Romans and 1 Corinthians there's freedom on these issues.

    Primary is in the eye of the beholder. I would have thought the way in which a person is saved to be a primary issue. Indeed, I can't imagine God being as concerned about our understanding of the Trinity as he would be about our understanding of our need to be saved.

    The way of salvation, the place of baptism, the structure of the church, the role of prayer, the spiritual gifts, healing, personal relationship, our dealing with our sin, the role of works ... the list is as literally endless as is the variety of view on any of these issues. Then you have to meld your views on each of these into a coherent theology? For that reason I suppose everyone's theology (who aren't simply licking it wholesale off a particular denomination) their own

    And you say "simple, just read it"?? The sheer weight of historical, present and, until He comes again (add that one to the list above whilst you're at it), future reality regarding multiple viewpoints, squashes this notion to a sub-nanometre wafer.


    The only difference is that I regard it as supremely authoritative and you don't. I'm happy to disagree on this issue but I believe there are clear dangers in it.

    I'm happy for you to begin to undergird your view in concrete fashion. There are a number of areas in which you've:

    - relied on simply stating such and such the case.

    - where you fly in the face of the reality as it is on the ground

    - don't address the issue.

    If you want me to compile a summary list I will but most are contained in this post. One which hasn't been addressed (and which I don't think is contained here) is how you differentiate you be spoken to via the Bible differs from you been spoken to any other way. I think you might be relying on the argument that the Bible is supreme. So if not providing objective reasons for supremacy, that issue again lies open for you to address.
    This isn't to deny the importance of the Bible but the view of it's primacy is problematic in the extreme. How did God communicate to all the Christians people who have lived and still live, in post NT times, and who had no access to a Bible. Were there no Christians in places without the Bible? If there were, how did he communicate with them?
    Solo wrote:
    They had the Apostolic witness of the Apostles until the Scriptures came in final form.

    That's a pretty limited audience. Are you telling me you believe either that:

    a) there are no Christians outside those rendered thus by apostolic witness / exposure to the Bible

    b) there were Christians outside those rendered above, but God didn't communicate with them

    The former strikes as utter madness (or to put it less strenuously: an example of a view for which there are plenty of Christian alternatives). The latter raises the question of how they became Christians without God communicating with them?


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 1,739 ✭✭✭solodeogloria


    Good morning all!

    antiskeptic - I've already explained to you the distinction between one and two. Firstly the Biblical texts were objectively spoken into this world. We have it in front of us. That's what I'm arguing is in front of us.

    Secondly - the subjective bit is indeed how we interpret this. I can't help you if you think that nothing in the Bible is clear. I disagree with you. I think there are quite a lot of concepts that are clear. I believe that God spoke for the most part clearly in revealing it. I also can't help you if you think that words have very loose interpretative bounds.

    I've explained what I've meant at length and I don't see much fruit in continuing.

    Much thanks in the Lord Jesus Christ,
    solodeogloria


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 9,555 ✭✭✭antiskeptic


    Firstly the Biblical texts were objectively spoken into this world.

    The biblical texts are objectively in front of us. God included as co-author isn't objectively demonstrable. If supposing God involved then that's a matter of faith, not objectivity.

    Would you deal with that directly?


    Secondly - the subjective bit is indeed how we interpret this. I can't help you if you think that nothing in the Bible is clear.


    I've given you an objective (and very longstanding) reason why your view must be considered incorrect. You haven't addressed that reason. Mere disagreement and the claim of 'interpretive boundaries' side steps it.

    So, why do you suppose there are so many different and conflicting views on so many, many issues. When the interpretive boundaries you say exist would ensure harmonious views?

    It is somewhat staggering to hear someone suppose their own view more of less correct and simply handwave away the views of all of Christianity which doesn't agree with them. It's okay to have different views, I think. But to handwave others away and not suppose for an instant that you might be wrong and they right is .. quite disrespectful.

    Could you address the issue of multi-contradictory views long existent in Christianity directly?


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 1,739 ✭✭✭solodeogloria


    Good morning.
    The biblical texts are objectively in front of us. God included as co-author isn't objectively demonstrable. If supposing God involved then that's a matter of
    It is somewhat staggering to hear someone suppose their own view more of less correct and simply handwave away the views of all of Christianity which doesn't agree with them. It's okay to have different views, I think. But to handwave others away and not suppose for an instant that you might be wrong and they right is .. quite disrespectful.

    antiskeptic - The only thing which is quite disrespectful is your suggestion that I've precluded my possibility of being wrong. I've not done this and I acknowledged this early in the thread. Either you have not read them or you're being disingenuous. I want to presume the former rather than the latter.

    I think it's best that we leave this here.

    Much thanks in the Lord,
    solodeogloria


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 9,555 ✭✭✭antiskeptic


    antiskeptic - The only thing which is quite disrespectful is your suggestion that I've precluded my possibility of being wrong.

    How wrong are you open to being about the items on the long list posted a few posts ago? If accepting your view on these can be wrong and one of the alternative views right, then I don't understand your 'interpretive boundaries' argument anymore. You appeared to be supposing interpretive boundaries would ensure you're essentially on the right track in these matters.

    Accepting that one can be wrong but supposing one isn't requires the basis on which you stand to be solid. If that basis can't be explained to anyone else then it might suffice for your own personal purposes, but it can't be used to counter anothers view.

    At this remove, it seems clear that you don't intend to address the fairly obvious problems that trickle out from your position, so I'm happy to call it a day.

    Auntie.


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 8,089 ✭✭✭Lavinia


    Well, as I see it, the words in the Bible are written down by man. nobody can negate that fact.
    So it was "the voice of God" heard by some man/men in the past.
    So God talked to them via/through them, or through their visions, or voice etc...

    Same way as it always was, is and always will be, no?

    Limiting the message from God to one book is very limiting from my point of view... If you have "eyes to see, and ears to hear", you would see it everywhere... if you want to...

    "lift the stone and I am there" etc...


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