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Consent to Sale

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  • 18-01-2017 4:22pm
    #1
    Was_SeeDot
    Registered Users Posts: 15 ✭


    Hi

    Just a quick query in case anybody has experience here - I am purchasing an ex-council house in Fingal and have been sale agreed for a number of months. We thought everything was in place to close before Christmas but at the last minute the issue of Consent to Sale from the county council came up and everything has ground to a halt.

    No communication from their solicitor just Xmas is delaying things.

    However, when I checked into the consent to sale the Dublin City Council (only one I could find on the web) procedure requires the purchaser to complete a form demonstrating they are in need of a house etc. We should be OK on this (not FTB but have already sold our previous house) but nobody has asked us for this?

    Have others encountered this?

    Is the procedure the same in all LAs?

    Has somebody dropped the ball on asking us to compelte a form or could this be an excuse for some other type of conveyancing issue (obviously I am asking for opinions not facts on this)?

    Thanks in advance

    Ciaran


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    #2
    4ensic15
    Banned (with Prison Access) Posts: 4,691 ✭✭✭4ensic15


    Standard with ex local authority houses. Next 3 purchasers from the original tenant have to show they are buying the house for their own use.


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    #3
    the_syco
    Registered Users Posts: 37,301 ✭✭✭✭the_syco


    4ensic15 wrote: »
    Standard with ex local authority houses. Next 3 purchasers from the original tenant have to show they are buying the house for their own use.
    OP; maybe best to have your lawyer look into this, and when you have what's needed, give it to the sellers lawyer. I'm guessing they may not know what to do.


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    #4
    SarahMollie
    Closed Accounts Posts: 2,843 ✭✭✭SarahMollie


    I heard this before when looking at an ex-council house.

    It just means that whoever buys it (and possibly again after you - i believe theres typically a number of purchasers/number of years which must elapse to end the council involvement) must be doing so to have it as their primary residence, ie the market of potential purchasers is only owner occupiers, not investors.


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    #5
    Was_SeeDot
    Registered Users Posts: 15 ✭Was_SeeDot


    SarahMollie wrote: »
    I heard this before when looking at an ex-council house.

    It just means that whoever buys it (and possibly again after you - i believe theres typically a number of purchasers/number of years which must elapse to end the council involvement) must be doing so to have it as their primary residence, ie the market of potential purchasers is only owner occupiers, not investors.

    Thanks all for the advice.

    This is what I thought - but therefore I don't understand how the vendors solicitor is saying they have applied for consent when we haven't supplied any info on our position. I suppose I was wondering if there were other reasons for a consent being required (e.g. any discounted purchase price being refunded or other issues which may be more complex to resolve).

    Perhaps as the_syco suggests their solicitor made a mistake.


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