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Employer refusing to pay holiday pay after resignation

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  • Registered Users Posts: 18,485 ✭✭✭✭bucketybuck


    I feel the 30 days thing in citizens advice may be overstated, the question for me is what would happen if this went before arbitration/a judge? What about the "reasonable person" aspect that judges do love to consider?

    The employer has to have 30 days notice of forced annual leave, but the employee does not have 30 days service remaining, so what is reasonable?

    The employer wishes the employee to use their annual leave during the notice period, is that reasonable?

    The employee wants to work instead to "help out", but is that even relevant? The employer doesn't want them to help out and frankly thats their decision to make, after all they could put the employee on gardening leave if they so wished.

    This is all just hypothetical of course but I don't think the "30 days notice" clause is a magic bullet here, not when it isn't physically possible for the company to give that 30 days notice. I certainly wouldn't like this case to get near a tribunal if I were the employee.



  • Registered Users Posts: 3,636 ✭✭✭dotsman


    But the 30 days is set in stone. Her resigning has nothing to do with it. The 30 days notice is obvious, as it is unreasonable to expect people to take leave at short notice (and have nothing planned/booked etc). When it comes to parents, you could never expect a parent to arrange a holiday in under 30 days when their partner needs to apply for leave and the kids need to be taken out of school or summer course etc. That is the reason why the 30 days is there. On top of that, if the request is unreasonable, the employee has the ability to appeal - i.e. it would be very unreasonable to expect an employee to take all their leave at a really strange time of year etc, when it is not the norm for that industry/role.


    The norm in most companies is that when a person resigns there is a discussion regarding leave. Just like the company may not want the opposite (a person resigns, gives a month's notice but has 15 days outstanding leave which they want to take, so effectively only works for 1 more week, leaving no time for a reasonable handover/replacement). Ideally, they should come to an agreement that suits both (which may include either option or a bit of both). If they can't reach agreement, then any leave that has already been approved is taken, and any outstanding leave is paid in the final wage.



  • Registered Users Posts: 5,902 ✭✭✭Chris_5339762


    Take the annual leave, all of it, and sod them.


    No matter WHAT HR in the public sector eventually say about paying back annual leave after you've left, finance will NOT pay that out, no matter what you do or who you threaten with solicitors.



  • Registered Users Posts: 18,485 ✭✭✭✭bucketybuck


    I don't know why you are explaining the reasons for the 30 days notice to me, its still a quite simple point here:

    The company cannot give 30 days notice because the employee doesn't have 30 days remaining.

    Thus you end up with a judge making a decision on whether each party is acting reasonably. Is it reasonable to ask the employee to use up their leave during that same notice period? Personally I think it is, or could be to the extent that I wouldn't like to test it in court.



  • Registered Users Posts: 14,572 ✭✭✭✭Dav010




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  • Registered Users Posts: 18,485 ✭✭✭✭bucketybuck


    I think your post contributed **** all to anybody.



  • Registered Users Posts: 14,572 ✭✭✭✭Dav010


    As has been mentioned a few times, there was more than 30 days remaining when op’s partner was told AL had to be taken, so there was time for at least part of AL to be used up before end date. So, on reflection, did your post contribute anything?



  • Registered Users Posts: 230 ✭✭surrender monkey


    Well that would be unreasonable behaviour from the employer. Anyway is that not in your girlfriend's favour no? She has handed in one months notice, legally if they require her to take leave at a time that's suits them they must give 30 days notice. Therefore they legally cannot force her to take her unused annual leave before her notice period expires. Or am I missing something ??



  • Registered Users Posts: 1,707 ✭✭✭dennyk


    The "30 days" (technically "one month", but that's a minor nitpick) is explicitly defined in statute, however:

    " 20.—  (1)  The times at which annual leave is granted to an employee shall be determined by his or her employer having regard to work requirements and subject—...( b) to the employer having consulted the employee or the trade union (if any) of which he or she is a member, not later than 1 month before the day on which the annual leave or, as the case may be, the portion thereof concerned is due to commence..."

    There is nothing in the law that says the employer may require an employee to use their leave with less than a month's notice if that is somehow deemed "reasonable"; the law is the law, and unless the employer and the employee mutually agree on using that annual leave with less notice, the employer has no recourse. If they cannot consult with the employee about using their leave at least a month in advance because the employee has given notice and won't be working there in a month, then they cannot require that employee to use their leave, and that is that. The employer is free to send the employee home on gardening leave for the duration of their notice period, if they don't want them working, but they'll still have to pay out that employee's annual leave balance in full at the end of their employment (in addition to paying them normally during their notice period).

    I'm also not sure why you think a judge would accept an employer's argument of "But we don't want to pay out this employee's annual leave and also pay them for their notice period as required by law..." as a reasonable argument. Obviously many employers don't want to pay their employees (especially their departing employees!) any more than they absolutely have to; that's why the laws governing such things exist, to ensure that employees are treated fairly.



  • Moderators, Business & Finance Moderators Posts: 10,305 Mod ✭✭✭✭Jim2007


    You are a long way from the law though..... The law requires reasonableness and consultation not agreement. The employee was aware of the rules on holidays and made the decision to resign. The employer reminded the employee of the rules and the fact that they would loose their entitlement should the fail to take their holidays as part of their notice period. That is the employer being as reasonable as they can be in the circumstances.



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  • Registered Users Posts: 9,455 ✭✭✭TheChizler


    No actually the first mention of the requirement to take holidays before the finishing up date happened after resignation. Nothing in the contract about this situation either.



  • Registered Users Posts: 9,455 ✭✭✭TheChizler


    If they can force you to take arbitrary leave at all then yes that would be my interpretation too, that notice is required.



  • Registered Users Posts: 9,455 ✭✭✭TheChizler


    20.— (1) The times at which annual leave is granted to an employee shall be determined by his or her employer having regard to work requirements and subject—...

    This might be nitpicking but can you grant something that hasn't been requested, or that isn't accepted at least?





  • I worked in the public sector. The rule is you take your allocated annual leave allowance before leaving/retiring, simple as that. Your resignation date occurs upon completion of employment, including whatever leave you have been owed/taken. You can’t be considered resigned from your role until that, and you won’t get paid after resignation date. Simple as that.



  • Registered Users Posts: 9,455 ✭✭✭TheChizler


    Ok that might be the policy, but legally where is this backed up?



  • Registered Users Posts: 10,636 ✭✭✭✭28064212


    They can't lose their entitlement. If leave is not taken before leaving the company, they are entitled to be paid for it. The only question to be answered is whether the employer can force the employee to take leave between now and the employment end-date.

    Given that the law states a requirement of 1 month's notice, and does not have any exceptions relating to employment termination, I can not see any way for the employer to force the employee to take the leave.

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  • I don’t honestly know the legalities, but every single person I have known in the public service has been forced to take all leave before resignation/retirement. I’ve never known otherwise. Yeah, maybe if you took them to European court and made a case etc, I’m sure it could possibly succeed under some circumstances. It’s made very plainly clear in any contracts have known of though, that all leave must be taken before resignation.



  • Registered Users Posts: 230 ✭✭surrender monkey


    I work in the public service too my place had that policy as well untill one of the solicitors employed there wanted to be paid for their untaken annual leave after they gave their notice and it was refused. She sent them the section of an Act that showed they were acting unlawfully and they backed down. Wish I could find it now .



  • Registered Users Posts: 230 ✭✭surrender monkey




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